Discussion:
What killed Special Relativity?
(too old to reply)
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 04:00:38 UTC
Permalink
A Christmas Puzzle.

When historians write the history of a great empire or idea, they
often pick on some critical event or date, and say: There, THAT was
the moment at which the edifice fell.

Sometimes it's an obvious public moment, like the fall of the Berlin
Wall, and sometimes it's some insignificant-looking moment or
apparently unrelated discovery or problem that set into action an
inevitable chain of events.
The discovery of the Jupiter's moons arguably sealed the end of the
Earth-centric universe, even if not everyone realised it at the time,
and the "failed" Michelson-Morley aether drift test probably lit a
fuse under the simpler aether theories that inevitably led to their
destruction, even if at the time the experiment was disputed,
unconfirmed and taken in some parts as demonstrating that Michelson
had lost the plot and shouldn't be publishing.

So, taking the "slow fuse" theme, is it possible that a similar fuse
might have already been lit under special relativity without most of
us realising it?

I think that most people who've studied SR most intensively will tend
to say, no, that's ridiculous -- there have been too many physicists
working on the subject for too long, for something like that to have
slipped past /everyone/.
But it's happened before, and in the case of Special Relativity, we
have a subject that doesn't have a proper test theory and where its
proponents do have a habit of screwing up the simple things. We might
well be dealing with the smartest bunch of people on the planet, but
they also aren't always the brightest folks you are likely to meet,
and they also have an awkward collective tendency to believe in
community folklore without actually checking whether or not it's based
in fact.
So there is .. lets say .. a certain amount of room for error.



Anyway, presented here for your Amusement and Chrismas Recreation is a
little puzzle. Six little hypothetical scenarios in which Special
Relativity is already deceased, but its death has been missed. Six
dates where a future historian might look back and say, ah, THAT was
the critical date when the flag dropped.


The question to ask yourself is this: If special relativity really had
already failed in one of the ways given here, would you be likely to
be aware of it? Would you know how to recognise the signs?

The are no proofs on offer here, and no obvious bodies. You cannot
force the eyewitnesses to the stand, most of them are dead, and the
rest would likely be hostile or uncomfortable about testifying.
The evidence (such as it is) consists of half-clues and hints,
unexplained departures from normal expected behaviour, strange
omissions in the experimental record and the theory, gaps in the
citation chain, repeated mathematical and historical mistakes in the
literature, ongoing accidental misrepresentations of experimental
data.

In forensic archaology, some of the most momentous events are marked
not by direct evidence or a written record, but by the absence of
artifacts, or gaps in the history. A date-gap between two supposedly
successive Pharoahs, an airbrushed smudge in a group photograph, a
street with a missing house number, a period when a local historian
chose not to keep records, a map showing fields where it used to show
a village.
Your task is to combine these clues with your knowledge of human
nature and its quirks and foibles, and try to answer the question: are
these omissions and mistakes truly random, or might they form a
consistent pattern or shape? Is there a trend? Could the gaps that
they create in our worldview be broad enough and overlap enough for
them to conceal a dead body?

Think of it as an alternative to playing Cluedo, or to those logic
puzzles that they sometimes print in the papers over the Christmas
holidays:
Who killed Special Relativity, when did they do it, and how?


Enjoy ...

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: "Is there any point to which you would wish to draw my attention?"
: "To the curious incident of the dog in the night time."
: "The dog did nothing in the night time."
: "That was the curious incident," remarked Sherlock Holmes.
:
: -- "Silver Blaze", by Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 04:12:15 UTC
Permalink
If a flashlight initially in deep space with no perceptible relative
velocity to us gets caught in the Earth's gravitational field and
falls to the Earth's surface, then by the principle of equivalence (or
Eotvos' principle, or variations), the conventional "approach
blueshift" that we see as it reaches us at the end of its fall should
be precisely the same as the gravitational blueshift that we should
see it to have at the start of the experiment.
(That's assuming that we ignore sneaky cosmological twists like the
universe deciding to change significantly while the flashlight falls).

Anyhow ... the good news here is that (in theory, at least) this gives
us an unusual way of testing the SR shift equations against those of
Newtonian mechanics ("NM").
Don't we normally do this?
Actually, no, we don't. Most tests of special relativity compare SR's
Doppler predictions against those of a stationary flat aether ("FSA"),
which is a rather different comparison.
"SR vs FSA" is an easy test if you want to make SR look good, because
SR (like most turn-of-the-century theories) predicts transverse
redshifts and FSA seems to be the only thing that doesn't ... hence,
if you manage to find a transverse redshift, and can get away with
citing some dodgy textbook authority to say that there's no other
explanation for this other than SR, then bingo, you've "proved" SR.
Unfortunately, you haven't really, because the version of the Doppler
equations that /really/ goes with NM will predict transverse redshifts
that are stronger than those of SR for a given velocity value, and
SR's redefinitions of various Newtonian relationships can make the two
sets of predictions hellishly difficult to tell apart.

So in a way, it's understandable that physicists should take the easy
way out and declare that Newtonian emission theory doesn't have to be
tested for, because we already know that it's wrong for other reasons.
The problems come when the community starts to believe that the FSA
predictions are in fact a valid "Newtonian" reference that represents
pre-SR theory in some meaningful way, 'cos they aren't.
In fact, the FSA equations are probably /incompatible/ with NM at a
deep level unless one takes all the redefinitions that were necessary
for us to turn NM into SR, and carry them all out a second time to get
yet another relativistic theory that uses the FSA Doppler set ...
which nobody (including me) can be bothered to do, because, frankly,
such a theory would not just be rather artificial, it would be already
contradicted by experimental results before you even started writing
it.


So (getting back on topic) ... the advantage of a gravity test of SR
(or even the /idea/ of a gravity test) is partly psychological ... it
gives us an excuse to do the sort of mathematical comparison of SR
against classical theory that we probably should have been doing all
along, without losing face.
So good, gravity-shifts let us break this impasse. Yaay for
gravity-shifts! Finally we get to test of the SR shift relationships
against a half-credible alternative set!

But life is not this simple, because the 1965 earthbound Pound/Snider
gravity-shift test still wasn't accurate enough to be able to
distinguish between the Newtonian and SR shift relationships, and
apparently after people realised that, they got a bit dispirited, and
nobody seems to have done a more accurate one since.
And it's surprisingly difficult to get a theoretician to commit to how
this experiment ought to come out. I certainly never managed it ... I
suppose that if an expert says "outcome X would invalidate SR", then
they are going to be put on the spot if that result shows up on a
future experiment. Especially if they made a mistake. So it's probably
safer for them to say nothing.

You do occasionally find veiled half-references to what a particular
writer might /think/ is the correct outcome ... one physicist's worked
example of a black hole problem that seems to be applying the SR shift
relationships, or another's statements that SR shift relationships
don't have to be correct for gravity shifts, because SR was never
designed to "do" gravity ...

But of course, in the "falling flashlight" example, if SR is correct
for motion shifts it MUST be valid for gravity-shifts … and if its
relationships don't hold for gravity-shifts, then they presumably
can't be quite right for velocity shifts, either. If mathematicians
years ago DID find some sort of fundamental incompatibility between
the SR /Doppler/ relationships and the effect of gravity on light,
then that would tend to mean ... well, it would tend to suggest that
perhaps they'd actually destroyed the whole special theory at a deep
level.

So the reluctance of some GR people to commit to a precise prediction
(of frequency ratio as a function of gravitational terminal velocity)
is a little bit frustrating.


========
VERDICT:
If SR is right, we can argue that gravity-shifts ought to use SR's
velocity-shift relationships. There seems to be some confusion over
whether they do or not. If standard gravitational shifts do NOT agree
with the SR velocity-shift relationships, then those relationships
(and SR) would seem to be wrong.
But there seems to be some confusion on the subject.

After Pound/Snider in 1965, some people still apparently hadn't gotten
up to speed with the testing issue, MTW came out in ~1971 and says
quite confidently that SR isn't gravity-compatible, so if the SR shift
relationship did go down the toilet for gravity-shifts,
hypothetically, I suppose we could put a date of somewhere around ...
1970?
But maybe there's not a real problem here, maybe the SR shift
relationship is considered "safe" for gravitation, and physics people
are just understandably reluctant to commit to a result that they
can't find already in print.


Onto the next case, "twins" studies ...

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: "The board is set. the pieces are moving."
: -- Gandalf, "Lord of the Rings"
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 05:20:50 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
If a flashlight initially in deep space with no perceptible relative
velocity to us gets caught in the Earth's gravitational field and
Conundrum #1 dead already. SR and gravitation are mutually exclusive.

You make this easy.

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 18:47:11 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Conundrum #1 dead already. SR and gravitation are mutually exclusive
You make this easy.
No, I think you may have missed the point of (#1) ... perhaps you may
have seen the word "gravity" and skipped over the rest of the post
without quite realising what I was attempting to say.


Our falling object /initially/ has its blueshift described by GR or
some other gravitational theory, but as it falls, that gravitational
shift is turned into an approach velocity shift, and finally when the
object reaches the observer, the entire shift is velocity, and there's
no gravitation involved.

So, that final shift /can/ be calculated from a "nongravitational"
theory, because at that point, it's no longer a gravitational problem,
its just a matter of calculating the simple velocity-shift on a nearby
object approaching with constant velocity.
That's something that we are supposed to be able to do with SR!


So ... even if SR is fundamentally incompatable with gravitation in
other ways, this particular relationship still has to hold -- if the
gravitational shift laws don't agree with SR in this situation, then
SR can't be correct for velocity-shifts either, and the whole special
theory is invalidated.

OTOH, if the gravitational shift law /does/ agree with SR, then things
loook much rosier for the theory ... in which case, it would be nice
to see someone authoritative from the the GR community actually
sticking their necks out and saying so.


=Erk= (Eric Baird)
Tom Roberts
2003-12-26 05:07:50 UTC
Permalink
[...]
In this series you have expended a lot of virtual ink on things either
well known or downright wrong.


Yes, SR is incompatible with gravitation -- that's what led Einstein to
search for, and find, GR. So what? -- anybody who has studied much
modern physics at all already knows this.

For instance, that's why I say that SR has not been refuted
by any reliable and reproducible experiment WITHIN ITS DOMAIN
OF APPLICABILITY [emphasis added]. That domain explicitly
excludes any physical situation in which gravitation plays an
important role.


Your confusion about "light dragging", Fizeau's experiment, etc. seems
to stem from your lack of knowledge how to apply SR to such a situation.
The speed of light in a refracting medium is c/n in the rest frame of
the medium; for a moving medium one then uses the Lorentz composition of
velocities to deduce the speed of light in the moving medium (wrt the
inertial frame in which the medium is moving). This is both well known
and fully consistent with experimental measurements (see the FAQ for
several references).


Your confusions about Cerenkov radiation are so confusing I don't
understand what you think the problem is. Certainly high energy
physicists ROUTINELY use "Cerenkov counters" to identify particle types,
and in the analysis of their operation SR is confirmed.


To your question "what killed SR?", I answer: no sensible physicist has
used SR as anything more than an approximation for >70 years. But GR is
so complex, and SR is so accurate an approximation for many uses, that
SR is used in many fields of physics (most especially in high energy
physics).


Tom Roberts ***@lucent.com
Harold Ensle
2003-12-27 19:14:57 UTC
Permalink
Post by Tom Roberts
The speed of light in a refracting medium is c/n in the rest frame of
the medium;
Why should light be source dependent in this case? It has been
experimentally proven that light speed is INDEPENDENT of
the velocity of the source. Why should the light speed suddenly
become dependent on the velocity of any material?
Post by Tom Roberts
for a moving medium one then uses the Lorentz composition of
velocities to deduce the speed of light in the moving medium (wrt the
inertial frame in which the medium is moving). This is both well known
and fully consistent with experimental measurements (see the FAQ for
several references).
Regardless of which velocity addition one uses here, the SR solution
does not address or answer the problem of the source dependence
implied by the experimental results.

You see, the problem is not in using SR velocity addition which is fine
IF dealing with ballistic addition of velocity. It is in the very first
statement:
**"....in the rest frame of the medium;"** which causes the problem.

H.Ellis Ensle
Tom Roberts
2003-12-28 04:26:40 UTC
Permalink
Note please that by "medium" I mean a material composed of atoms that is
sufficiently transparent to the light of interest. In particular, I do
_NOT_ mean any kind of "aether". This is the standard usage of this term
in modern physics, and I did not think it needed any comment.
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
The speed of light in a refracting medium is c/n in the rest frame of
the medium;
Why should light be source dependent in this case?
It's not. It is "medium dependent". And this is so because of the
multiple interactions with the charged particles in the medium
(electrons and nuclei).
Post by Harold Ensle
It has been
experimentally proven that light speed is INDEPENDENT of
the velocity of the source. Why should the light speed suddenly
become dependent on the velocity of any material?
First get your terms straight -- you interchange "source" and "medium"
such that you confuse yourself (and any unwary reader).

In a medium, the speed of light wrt the medium is independent of the
speed of the source wrt the medium. Because of this fact we can
characterize the medium by an intrinsic value that is the ratio of the
speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium; we call it
the index of refraction.

[If the speed of light in the medium were not independent of
the speed of the source, we could not characterize the medium
this way -- it would not be INTRINSIC to the medium.]


In vacuum there is no medium, and nothing wrt which to measure any
speed.... So in vacuum the only reference is one's speed-measuring
apparatus, and by golly one always measures c for the speed of light.
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
for a moving medium one then uses the Lorentz composition of
velocities to deduce the speed of light in the moving medium (wrt the
inertial frame in which the medium is moving). This is both well known
and fully consistent with experimental measurements (see the FAQ for
several references).
Regardless of which velocity addition one uses here, the SR solution
does not address or answer the problem of the source dependence
implied by the experimental results.
"Medium" != "source".
Post by Harold Ensle
You see, the problem is not in using SR velocity addition which is fine
IF dealing with ballistic addition of velocity. It is in the very first
**"....in the rest frame of the medium;"** which causes the problem.
Huh??? A medium has a clear and obvious rest frame. Even if not solid
(e.g. a turbulent gas) every medium has a rest frame at each location.


I think your confusion between medium and source is the problem, not
anything I said, or anything having to do with SR.


Tom Roberts ***@lucent.com
Harold Ensle
2003-12-28 18:49:49 UTC
Permalink
Post by Tom Roberts
Note please that by "medium" I mean a material composed of atoms that is
sufficiently transparent to the light of interest. In particular, I do
_NOT_ mean any kind of "aether". This is the standard usage of this term
in modern physics, and I did not think it needed any comment.
OK...but it is not an issue as I was refering to your definition above.
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
The speed of light in a refracting medium is c/n in the rest frame of
the medium;
Why should light be source dependent in this case?
It's not. It is "medium dependent". And this is so because of the
multiple interactions with the charged particles in the medium
(electrons and nuclei).
But WHAT is "medium dependent"? What type of multiple reactions
are you talking about? How do these reactions cause the light to
suddenly become medium dependent.
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
It has been
experimentally proven that light speed is INDEPENDENT of
the velocity of the source. Why should the light speed suddenly
become dependent on the velocity of any material?
First get your terms straight -- you interchange "source" and "medium"
such that you confuse yourself (and any unwary reader).
Not necessarily. I did not equate the terms, but it seems that source
can be deduced from the medium, if the medium is to affect the light
in the way that you describe. You claim that the speed of light in
a medium (collection of atoms) suddenly results in the light moving
dependent on the velocity of the atoms that constitute the medium.

So what interaction occurs with the atoms to cause this to happen
and how can it be done without some type of source dependence?
Post by Tom Roberts
In a medium, the speed of light wrt the medium is independent of the
speed of the source wrt the medium.
But not the speed of the medium itself.
Post by Tom Roberts
Because of this fact we can
characterize the medium by an intrinsic value that is the ratio of the
speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium; we call it
the index of refraction.
[If the speed of light in the medium were not independent of
the speed of the source, we could not characterize the medium
this way -- it would not be INTRINSIC to the medium.]
All you are saying here is that the "medium dependence on light
speed" is independent of an emitting source in the medium.
This is true, but does not address my original argument.
Post by Tom Roberts
In vacuum there is no medium, and nothing wrt which to measure any
speed.... So in vacuum the only reference is one's speed-measuring
apparatus, and by golly one always measures c for the speed of light.
Another truth that has no bearing on the question.
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
for a moving medium one then uses the Lorentz composition of
velocities to deduce the speed of light in the moving medium (wrt the
inertial frame in which the medium is moving). This is both well known
and fully consistent with experimental measurements (see the FAQ for
several references).
Regardless of which velocity addition one uses here, the SR solution
does not address or answer the problem of the source dependence
implied by the experimental results.
"Medium" != "source".
Of course, but for light to be affected as you say....."source" is deduced
hence.
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
You see, the problem is not in using SR velocity addition which is fine
IF dealing with ballistic addition of velocity. It is in the very first
**"....in the rest frame of the medium;"** which causes the problem.
Huh??? A medium has a clear and obvious rest frame.
This statement is actually fuzzy. The atoms that make up the "medium"
have a rest frame which is no more special or obvious than the rest
frame of any other observer.
Post by Tom Roberts
Even if not solid
(e.g. a turbulent gas) every medium has a rest frame at each location.
I think your confusion between medium and source is the problem, not
anything I said, or anything having to do with SR.
I am sorry, but it is you who are confusing the two by giving magical
abilities to a so-called "medium" which is technically non-existent
being only a vacuum between atoms.

Your confusion is even more surprising as you agree with this definition.

Of course, you will never realize your mistake....
but I state it here as a formality....for the record.

H.Ellis Ensle
Tom Roberts
2003-12-29 02:26:09 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
The speed of light in a refracting medium is c/n in the rest frame of
the medium;
Why should light be source dependent in this case?
It's not. It is "medium dependent". And this is so because of the
multiple interactions with the charged particles in the medium
(electrons and nuclei).
But WHAT is "medium dependent"?
You are expected to be able to read simple English. In this case by
looking above at the quoted text it is quite clear that I meant that the
speed of light in a medium is medium dependent (via the "n" in c/n,
which I discussed later in that article).
Post by Harold Ensle
What type of multiple reactions
are you talking about? How do these reactions cause the light to
suddenly become medium dependent.
[Again your lack of reading skills intervenes -- the word is
"interactions", not "reactions". I reply assuming the former.]

This depends on your theoretical context.

In classical electrodynamics the standard reference is Born and Wolf,
_Principles_of_Optics_ -- look up "extinction theorem" and nearby
chapters. That theorem describes how rapidly after entering a medium a
light ray will approach the asymptotic speed c/n (for glass it is
~microns; for air ~cm).

In Quantum Electrodynamics the standard references are beyond you, but
there is an excellent qualitative discussion in Feynman, _QED_.
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
"Source" != "Medium"
I did not equate the terms, but it seems that source
can be deduced from the medium, if the medium is to affect the light
in the way that you describe. You claim that the speed of light in
a medium (collection of atoms) suddenly results in the light moving
dependent on the velocity of the atoms that constitute the medium.
In the context of classical electrodynamics, which is a LINEAR theory,
one can model the situation[#] as an incident light ray propagating at c
(as if it were in vacuum), plus a set of secondarily-emitted light waves
from the effects of the incident ray on the charged particles of the
medium (these also propagate at c, as if in vacuum). Add it all up and
the velocity of the result is c/n. Read Born and Wolf....

[#] It's actually more complicated because one must include
tertiary, 4-ary, 5-ary, ... -- see Born and Wolf.
Post by Harold Ensle
The atoms that make up the "medium"
have a rest frame which is no more special or obvious than the rest
frame of any other observer.
Sure it is, when discussing the speed RELATIVE TO THE MEDIUM. It is, in
fact, the ONLY relevant frame.


Tom Roberts ***@lucent.com
Harold Ensle
2003-12-29 06:47:33 UTC
Permalink
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
The speed of light in a refracting medium is c/n in the rest frame of
the medium;
Why should light be source dependent in this case?
It's not. It is "medium dependent". And this is so because of the
multiple interactions with the charged particles in the medium
(electrons and nuclei).
But WHAT is "medium dependent"?
You are expected to be able to read simple English.
I read your simple English, but it was not sufficient. That is why
I asked again with some capital letters.
Post by Tom Roberts
In this case by
looking above at the quoted text it is quite clear that I meant that the
speed of light in a medium is medium dependent (via the "n" in c/n,
which I discussed later in that article).
This is just book-keeping and I was asking for more.
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
What type of multiple reactions
are you talking about? How do these reactions cause the light to
suddenly become medium dependent.
[Again your lack of reading skills intervenes -- the word is
"interactions", not "reactions". I reply assuming the former.]
Splitting of hairs noted.
Post by Tom Roberts
This depends on your theoretical context.
It shouldn't. There should be a simple, single straight forward
answer.
Post by Tom Roberts
In classical electrodynamics the standard reference is Born and Wolf,
_Principles_of_Optics_ -- look up "extinction theorem" and nearby
chapters. That theorem describes how rapidly after entering a medium a
light ray will approach the asymptotic speed c/n (for glass it is
~microns; for air ~cm).
More book-keeping. HOW does the material cause the light to
change its speed. If there is only vacuum between the atoms,
how does it occur??
Post by Tom Roberts
In Quantum Electrodynamics the standard references are beyond you, but
there is an excellent qualitative discussion in Feynman, _QED_.
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
"Source" != "Medium"
I did not equate the terms, but it seems that source
can be deduced from the medium, if the medium is to affect the light
in the way that you describe. You claim that the speed of light in
a medium (collection of atoms) suddenly results in the light moving
dependent on the velocity of the atoms that constitute the medium.
In the context of classical electrodynamics, which is a LINEAR theory,
one can model the situation[#] as an incident light ray propagating at c
(as if it were in vacuum),
plus a set of secondarily-emitted light waves
Where did these secondarily-emitted light waves come from?
Post by Tom Roberts
from the effects of the incident ray on the charged particles of the
medium (these also propagate at c, as if in vacuum). Add it all up and
the velocity of the result is c/n. Read Born and Wolf....
Well...I'm a bit curious to see if *you* can explain it. If all the
waves are moving at c, how can the energy be transmitted through the
material at less than c. BUT lest I get trapped in your strawman
argument..remember, that simply travelling at c/n does not explain
why the light speed is dependent on the *speed* of the medium.

[.....]

H.Ellis Ensle
Tom Roberts
2003-12-29 20:01:33 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
This depends on your theoretical context.
It shouldn't. There should be a simple, single straight forward
answer.
What that answer is depends upon how deeply one delves into the system.
In particular, classical and quantum descriptions differ significantly
(but in this case end with the same result).

I will stick to a classical description.
Post by Harold Ensle
HOW does the material cause the light to
change its speed.
I think your basic problem is in trying to think of "THE" light -- here
light is a wave, and multiple waves can interfere. And in interfering
the group and phase velocities can be different from the phase
velocities of the underlying waves -- that's what is going on here. In
particular, NOTHING "changes" speed.


Overly simplified example: consider two sources of waves S1 and S2 with
frequency f but separated transverse to the direction of observation;
S1, S2, and observer are all at rest in the inertial frame of the
(isotropic) medium:
S1 *
|
|
|-------------------------------------> observer
|
|
S2 *
S1 and S2 emit waves in phase with frequency f, which travel radially
outward from each with speed v. Clearly the observer will observe waves
with frequency f but with speed less than v, moving to the right. Note
this applies to water waves, sound waves, light waves....

Clearly one could do this for light in vacuum -- how does
this square with the claim that light always propagates with
speed c in vacuum? The answer is that in oversimplifying I
omitted the important distinction among phase speed, group
speed, and front speed. The above discussion is of phase
speed, but the universal speed of light applies to front
speed.


To relate this to light propagating in a medium, here S1 and S2 are two
individual secondary emitters (excited by the incident light wave). One
must vary S1 and S2 throughout the volume of the medium, varying their
phases appropriately, summing all the different contributions....
Post by Harold Ensle
If there is only vacuum between the atoms,
how does it occur??
Basic wave propagation, including interference from zillions of coherent
sources....
Post by Harold Ensle
Where did these secondarily-emitted light waves come from?
From charged particles in the medium that are excited by the incoming
light wave (there are also tertiary, 4-ary, ....).
Post by Harold Ensle
remember, that simply travelling at c/n does not explain
why the light speed is dependent on the *speed* of the medium.
Sure it does, when one remembers that the speed c/n is RELATIVE TO THE
MEDIUM, and that "the" light is really an interference among zillions of
waves from all those charged particles....

[Until you show some evidence of having read Born and Wolf,
I probably won't respond any further.]


Tom Roberts ***@lucent.com
Harold Ensle
2003-12-30 02:07:08 UTC
Permalink
[.......]
Post by Tom Roberts
Overly simplified example: consider two sources of waves S1 and S2 with
frequency f but separated transverse to the direction of observation;
S1, S2, and observer are all at rest in the inertial frame of the
S1 *
|
|
|-------------------------------------> observer
|
|
S2 *
S1 and S2 emit waves in phase with frequency f, which travel radially
outward from each with speed v. Clearly the observer will observe waves
with frequency f but with speed less than v, moving to the right. Note
this applies to water waves, sound waves, light waves....
Now if S1 and S2 are moving to the right with velocity v0 when
they emit the waves, will the observer see a wave front approaching
him at yet a different velocity????

Of course not.

NOW do you understand my question?

H.Ellis Ensle
Dirk Van de moortel
2003-12-30 15:24:48 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
[.......]
Post by Tom Roberts
Overly simplified example: consider two sources of waves S1 and S2 with
frequency f but separated transverse to the direction of observation;
S1, S2, and observer are all at rest in the inertial frame of the
S1 *
|
|
|-------------------------------------> observer
|
|
S2 *
S1 and S2 emit waves in phase with frequency f, which travel radially
outward from each with speed v. Clearly the observer will observe waves
with frequency f but with speed less than v, moving to the right. Note
this applies to water waves, sound waves, light waves....
Now if S1 and S2 are moving to the right with velocity v0 when
they emit the waves, will the observer see a wave front approaching
him at yet a different velocity????
Of course not.
NOW do you understand my question?
H.Ellis Ensle
Careful, you are sounding like
http://users.pandora.be/vdmoortel/dirk/Stuff/Monopoly.html
again.
It tends to chase people away.

Dirk Vdm
Harold Ensle
2003-12-30 20:10:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by Dirk Van de moortel
Post by Harold Ensle
[.......]
Post by Tom Roberts
Overly simplified example: consider two sources of waves S1 and S2 with
frequency f but separated transverse to the direction of observation;
S1, S2, and observer are all at rest in the inertial frame of the
S1 *
|
|
|-------------------------------------> observer
|
|
S2 *
S1 and S2 emit waves in phase with frequency f, which travel radially
outward from each with speed v. Clearly the observer will observe waves
with frequency f but with speed less than v, moving to the right. Note
this applies to water waves, sound waves, light waves....
Now if S1 and S2 are moving to the right with velocity v0 when
they emit the waves, will the observer see a wave front approaching
him at yet a different velocity????
Of course not.
NOW do you understand my question?
H.Ellis Ensle
Careful, you are sounding like
http://users.pandora.be/vdmoortel/dirk/Stuff/Monopoly.html
again.
It tends to chase people away.
Dirk Vdm
Why do you direct people to your own piece of fantasy??
There is nothing there written by me.


What you should do is add this post to your fumbles-list
along with all my other key points which you failed to
understand.

H.Ellis Ensle
Dirk Van de moortel
2003-12-30 20:13:52 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Dirk Van de moortel
Post by Harold Ensle
[.......]
Post by Tom Roberts
Overly simplified example: consider two sources of waves S1 and S2
with
Post by Dirk Van de moortel
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
frequency f but separated transverse to the direction of observation;
S1, S2, and observer are all at rest in the inertial frame of the
S1 *
|
|
|-------------------------------------> observer
|
|
S2 *
S1 and S2 emit waves in phase with frequency f, which travel radially
outward from each with speed v. Clearly the observer will observe
waves
Post by Dirk Van de moortel
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
with frequency f but with speed less than v, moving to the right. Note
this applies to water waves, sound waves, light waves....
Now if S1 and S2 are moving to the right with velocity v0 when
they emit the waves, will the observer see a wave front approaching
him at yet a different velocity????
Of course not.
NOW do you understand my question?
H.Ellis Ensle
Careful, you are sounding like
http://users.pandora.be/vdmoortel/dirk/Stuff/Monopoly.html
again.
It tends to chase people away.
Dirk Vdm
Why do you direct people to your own piece of fantasy??
There is nothing there written by me.
One word: context.

Dirk Vdm
Harold Ensle
2004-01-03 05:31:33 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
[.......]
Post by Tom Roberts
Overly simplified example: consider two sources of waves S1 and S2 with
frequency f but separated transverse to the direction of observation;
S1, S2, and observer are all at rest in the inertial frame of the
S1 *
|
|
|-------------------------------------> observer
|
|
S2 *
S1 and S2 emit waves in phase with frequency f, which travel radially
outward from each with speed v. Clearly the observer will observe waves
with frequency f but with speed less than v, moving to the right. Note
this applies to water waves, sound waves, light waves....
Now if S1 and S2 are moving to the right with velocity v0 when
they emit the waves, will the observer see a wave front approaching
him at yet a different velocity????
Of course not.
NOW do you understand my question?
H.Ellis Ensle
Apparently......Roberts ran away.

I guess the question was too hard for him.

H.Ellis Ensle
Dirk Van de moortel
2004-01-03 09:56:28 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Harold Ensle
[.......]
Post by Tom Roberts
Overly simplified example: consider two sources of waves S1 and S2 with
frequency f but separated transverse to the direction of observation;
S1, S2, and observer are all at rest in the inertial frame of the
S1 *
|
|
|-------------------------------------> observer
|
|
S2 *
S1 and S2 emit waves in phase with frequency f, which travel radially
outward from each with speed v. Clearly the observer will observe waves
with frequency f but with speed less than v, moving to the right. Note
this applies to water waves, sound waves, light waves....
Now if S1 and S2 are moving to the right with velocity v0 when
they emit the waves, will the observer see a wave front approaching
him at yet a different velocity????
Of course not.
NOW do you understand my question?
H.Ellis Ensle
Apparently......Roberts ran away.
I guess the question was too hard for him.
Or maybe he read the Monopoly thing
http://users.pandora.be/vdmoortel/dirk/Stuff/Monopoly.html
and the context in which I wrote it:
http://groups.google.com/groups?&threadm=inuC9.8670$***@afrodite.telenet-ops.be

Dirk Vdm
Tom Roberts
2004-01-05 16:02:08 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
Apparently......Roberts ran away.
[Until you show some evidence of having read Born and Wolf,
I probably won't respond any further.]
They explain it better than I could.


Tom Roberts ***@lucent.com
Harold Ensle
2004-01-06 05:05:16 UTC
Permalink
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
Apparently......Roberts ran away.
[Until you show some evidence of having read Born and Wolf,
I probably won't respond any further.]
They explain it better than I could.
It's not a matter of better. It's a matter of completely different than
what you wrote. I clearly indicated the problem in relation to
your description of the classical solution. Anyone who understands
basic physics and the idea of source velocity independence of
wave motion could understand my argument. If Born and Wolf
(which I do not currently have access to) does not specifically address
the problem I described, (and you claim to know, so should be
able to refer to it with a few lines of description) then the problem
really does exist...exactly as I described.

Of course, you can never admit that I would write something that
is correct since I am the "enemy". Therefore I do not expect it.

I guess I will have to wait until someone joins the group who
will be willing to discuss a topic honestly.

H.Ellis Ensle
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2004-01-06 05:09:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
Apparently......Roberts ran away.
[Until you show some evidence of having read Born and Wolf,
I probably won't respond any further.]
They explain it better than I could.
It's not a matter of better. It's a matter of completely different than
...
Post by Harold Ensle
(which I do not currently have access to) does not specifically address
the problem I described, (and you claim to know, so should be
able to refer to it with a few lines of description) then the problem
really does exist...exactly as I described.
Go to the library. Get the book. Don't whine that he does not spend the
time to type in the text for you.

David A. Smith
Harold Ensle
2004-01-07 01:34:28 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
Apparently......Roberts ran away.
[Until you show some evidence of having read Born and Wolf,
I probably won't respond any further.]
They explain it better than I could.
It's not a matter of better. It's a matter of completely different than
...
Post by Harold Ensle
(which I do not currently have access to) does not specifically address
the problem I described, (and you claim to know, so should be
able to refer to it with a few lines of description) then the problem
really does exist...exactly as I described.
Go to the library. Get the book. Don't whine that he does not spend the
time to type in the text for you.
I'm not whining. I am trying to determine if he actually knows what
he is talking about.

and BTW...I am still waiting.

H.Ellis Ensle
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2004-01-07 02:22:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by Harold Ensle
Post by Tom Roberts
Post by Harold Ensle
Apparently......Roberts ran away.
[Until you show some evidence of having read Born and Wolf,
I probably won't respond any further.]
They explain it better than I could.
It's not a matter of better. It's a matter of completely different than
...
Post by Harold Ensle
(which I do not currently have access to) does not specifically address
the problem I described, (and you claim to know, so should be
able to refer to it with a few lines of description) then the problem
really does exist...exactly as I described.
Go to the library. Get the book. Don't whine that he does not spend the
time to type in the text for you.
I'm not whining. I am trying to determine if he actually knows what
he is talking about.
He does. What you are actually doing is posturing, so that you can avoid
doing anything.
Post by Harold Ensle
and BTW...I am still waiting.
By the way, "waiting" is not the assignment. The assignment is "reading".

David A. Smith
Harold Ensle
2004-01-07 04:58:05 UTC
Permalink
"N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)" <N: dlzc1 D:cox T:***@nospam.com> wrote in
message news:y3KKb.47011$***@fed1read05...

[........]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
David A. Smith
You are sooo wrong. The sad thing is that you really don't realize it.
tch tch tch.

H.Ellis Ensle
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2004-01-07 14:16:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by Harold Ensle
[........]
You are sooo wrong. The sad thing is that you really don't realize it.
tch tch tch.
Real informative post here Ensle. Really worth your time. What specifics
do you object to, or are you just whining again because you might have to
actually fire up that massive intellect of yours? Oh, thats right, you
didn't leave any specifics.

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 04:22:23 UTC
Permalink
Discussions of "The Twin Paradox" can get awkward, because (thanks to
our GR brethren) there are now two distinct versions of the problem,
the older "problematic" one (which we'll call "TP1") where the twin
travels out and back at constant velocity, and the newer version
("TP2"), where the twin starts and ends their journey moving at high
speed wrt the earth, but undergoes a constant
deceleration(/acceleration) throughout the trip.

The second version is the one that tends to appear in gravitational
textbooks, and isn't particularly paradoxical ... since it just
involves saying that a physically-accelerated clock loses an amount of
time that relates directly to the amount of time that it undergoes
gee-force stresses, and since the time-loss also scales according to
how strong those "gravitational" stresses are, it immediately lends
itself to a simple physical explanation - increased gravity slows
clocks! If one has already accepted the idea of gravitational time
dilation, the clock-difference can be explained by saying that the
travelling twin's gee-forced clocks simply act as they would be
expected to if they were immersed in a genuine gravitational field,
and that's the thing solved (pretty much).

But the earlier (original?) version of the twin paradox, the one that
generated the controversy, can't be made to go away like this. Or at
least, the last time I looked into it, nobody in the GR community had
gotten a gravitational-domain description of the original twins
paradox to work properly without throwing up additional paradoxes
(e.g. C. M/oller, Am. J. Phys. 27 491-493 (1959) ).
Without an apparent solution to these difficulties, it looked rather
as if as if the community had eventually just given up and dealt with
the awkward situation by replacing the original paradox with a new,
weaker version that they /could/ deal with, and then claiming that
"The Twin Paradox" was solved.

Which is cheating! : )


There's also the issue of how SR's predictions fit into a wider scheme
of theories: although SR normally works by "relativising" the
divergent predictions obtained by assuming that lightspeed is fixed in
our frame and fixed in someone else's, the TP1 result doesn't fit this
pattern. In that context, TP1 is an anomaly. True, we can run the same
sort of TP1 calculation based on Doppler arguments with emission
theory and with a simple fixed stationary aether, get
"Lorentz-squared" and "unity" results respectively, and then do the
"root product" trick to get back to SR's relativised result of a
single overall Lorentz time-dilation in the returned astronaut, which
fits the wider pattern perfectly ... but to force that fit, we have to
deliberately miscalculate the emission-theory results by "forgetting"
to compensate for the optical wierdnesses that would happen at the
turnaround stage in emission theory (stage overlap). And where SR
usually approximates other old intermediate theories (eg dragged
aether), with TP1 it doesn't. It seems to be the one area where SR
predicts an effect that really is radically new and has no obvious
relationship to effects under other theories, or to more general
arguments.

Unfortunately, there also seems to be no direct physical evidence that
it's correct. There doesn't seem to be anything in the books that
verifies a TP1 effect, and due to the difficulty of constructing this
sort of experiment, there may never be. Certainly we have centrifuge
tests and arguments based on atomic structure that say that constant
acceleration is associated with time dilation, but that's TP2, and
those experiments can be explained from basic gravitational arguments
without invoking SR.

Finally, I suppose there's the "utility" argument. How much work based
on the TP1 wouldn't work if TP1 was wrong? Well, again, when we take
out the calculations that can be done with TP2, there doesn't seem to
be anything useful that actually relies on TP1. If it's discredited,
planes will not fall out of the sky, and there's probably no hardware
that would have to be reassessed.



VERDICT:
So ... maybe SR TP1 is simply wrong. With no wider scheme of logic
supporting the result, no further theory based on it, and no
experimental evidence to back it up, perhaps it's simply the result of
extrapolating special relativity too far.
Or, if we can't separate SR's extrapolated "results" for acceleration
problems from its strictly-inertial predictions, perhaps the whole
theory is wrong ...

That would put the time of death at about ... 1959?

Next possible death-date coming up ...

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: " I ran out of gas! I got a flat tire! I didn't have change for cab
: fare! I lost my tux at the cleaners! I locked my keys in the car!
: An old friend came in from out of town! Someone stole my car!
: There was an earthquake! A terrible flood! Locusts!
: IT WASN'T MY FAULT, I SWEAR TO GOD!
: -- Jake (down in the sewer), "The Blues Brothers"
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 05:22:47 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
Discussions of "The Twin Paradox" can get awkward, because (thanks to
our GR brethren) there are now two distinct versions of the problem,
the older "problematic" one (which we'll call "TP1") where the twin
travels out and back at constant velocity, and the newer version
("TP2"), where the twin starts and ends their journey moving at high
speed wrt the earth, but undergoes a constant
deceleration(/acceleration) throughout the trip.
Conundrum #2 dead. SR assumes inertial frames, and acceleration is not
inertial.
Post by Eric Baird
The second version is the one that tends to appear in gravitational
textbooks, and isn't particularly paradoxical ... since it just
involves saying that a physically-accelerated clock loses an amount of
Same again, acceleration and gravitation have nothing to do with SR. The
title of your thread.

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 18:51:25 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by Eric Baird
Discussions of "The Twin Paradox" can get awkward, because (thanks to
our GR brethren) there are now two distinct versions of the problem,
the older "problematic" one (which we'll call "TP1") where the twin
travels out and back at constant velocity, and the newer version
("TP2"), where the twin starts and ends their journey moving at high
speed wrt the earth, but undergoes a constant
deceleration(/acceleration) throughout the trip.
Conundrum #2 dead. SR assumes inertial frames, and acceleration is not
inertial.
But in the "TP1" version (which was the one that I was saying seemed
to be the problem), the entire effect is calculable from the SR
"relativistic Doppler" shifts that observers can see when they are
both moving inertially, when the special theory /is/ supposed to be
valid.

The point of using an abrupt acceleration (and long outward and return
journeys) is that the amount of clock-advancement that the earth
observer /might/ see during the turnaround acceleration stage can't
possibly compensate for the timelag that builds up in the coasting
stage, unless the earth observer sees clocks going backwards or signal
overlaps or some other sort of apparent breakdown of visual causality
that's not supposed to happen in current theory.

I think we might be in agreement that TP1 looks like an "unsafe"
result, but mathematically, there doesn't seem to be any way of
avoiding it, if the Doppler shifts seen in the outward and return
constant-velocity coasting stages agree with the SR shift predictions,
and if we don't allow wierd acceleration effects to mangle the signal.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by Eric Baird
The second version is the one that tends to appear in gravitational
textbooks, and isn't particularly paradoxical ... since it just
involves saying that a physically-accelerated clock loses an amount of
Same again, acceleration and gravitation have nothing to do with SR. The
title of your thread.
I did say that said that the second version was not a problem.

But I think you have to reconsider your position on the TP1 problem,
unless you think that the job of predicting the shift seen on an
object approaching or receding from the observer at constant speed for
an extended period of time is beyond special relativity's abilities,
or is a situation where SR's predictions aren't trustworthy, or unless
you want to break away from the mainstream and say that something
wierd happens because of the sudden acceleration to cancel the effect
out.

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
Bilge
2003-12-24 23:07:27 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
The point of using an abrupt acceleration (and long outward and return
journeys) is that the amount of clock-advancement that the earth
observer /might/ see during the turnaround acceleration stage can't
possibly compensate for the timelag that builds up in the coasting
stage, unless the earth observer sees clocks going backwards or signal
overlaps or some other sort of apparent breakdown of visual causality
that's not supposed to happen in current theory.
You have totally misunderstood special relativity. It doesn't
matter how you decide to implement the acceleration, because the
degree has nothing to do with any degree of "clock advancement".
The fact that an acceleration is involved at all means that the
clocks cannot remain synchronized. Heck, make it a point. What
is the slope of the line at a point where two lines intersect?
Eric Baird
2004-01-10 10:42:39 UTC
Permalink
On Wed, 24 Dec 2003 23:07:27 -0000,
Post by Bilge
Post by Eric Baird
The point of using an abrupt acceleration (and long outward and return
journeys) is that the amount of clock-advancement that the earth
observer /might/ see during the turnaround acceleration stage can't
possibly compensate for the timelag that builds up in the coasting
stage, unless the earth observer sees clocks going backwards or signal
overlaps or some other sort of apparent breakdown of visual causality
that's not supposed to happen in current theory.
You have totally misunderstood special relativity.
Nope, you were misunderstanding the point that I was attempting to
make.
Post by Bilge
It doesn't
matter how you decide to implement the acceleration, because the
degree has nothing to do with any degree of "clock advancement".
When I mentioned "clock advancement", I was referring to any
acceleration-related effects that might be thought to partly or
completely compensate for the standard "clock retardation" effects
predicted by special relativity. Those additional effects aren't part
of the standard SR twins problem, but they are relevant to whether or
not the standard SR TP1 outcome is actually physically correct in real
life.

Now, if there really is still an acknowledged incompatibility between
the SR TP1 result and general relativity, /some/ people would counter
by saying that this doesn't mean that SR or GR are wrong, only that
the TP1 result isn't valid, because SR doesn't have to be valid for
problems involving acceleration.


But (as you were saying) ... since we can make the acceleration
arbitrarily short, then if the acceleration stage does =not= interfere
with the coasting-stage signals, that means that we can shrink the
acceleration stage to (almost) nothing and make the final
clock-difference problem reduce to a simple calculation of the Doppler
shifts seen during the outward and return inertial stages.
But that would mean that the SR TP1 result would then =have= to be
correct if SR was correct for inertial motion, regardless of whether
or not we thought that it was "valid for acceleration", so David's
counter argument ::
:: Conundrum #2 dead. SR assumes inertial frames,
:: and acceleration is not inertial.
would be irrelevant.

The final Lorentz clock-difference would have to be correct, and GR
would have to agree, otherwise GR would be wrong, or SR would be
wrong, or both would be wrong.
AFAIK, so far the GR community have not yet gotten GR to agree with
the SR TP1 result without generating additional paradoxes. So by this
argument, it would seem that either the problem is down to GR people
not being able to correctly apply GR to this situation, or one or both
theories being faulty.


OTOH, if we say that perhaps the acceleration stage =does=
significantly alter part of the signal stream from the coasting
stages, so that the SR TP1 result is wrong (without SR itself being
wrong), then we'd have to find some way of persuading GR to allow that
behaviour ... and AFAIK, that behaviour is illegal under GR, and can't
be made legal unless we alter the basic underlying Doppler
relationships used by SR ... so in the alternative scenerio, both SR
and GR are wrong.


Different people have different opinions about the "correct" way to
interpret SR's results for the twins problem, but it does seem that
whichever of these two approaches we take, we do seem to be looking
at a broken theory ... unless the GR folks can get GR to make the same
SR TP1 prediction without generating fresh paradoxes, and that might
be impossible.
Post by Bilge
The fact that an acceleration is involved at all means that the
clocks cannot remain synchronized. Heck, make it a point. What
is the slope of the line at a point where two lines intersect?
You don't need to use complicated clock-synch arguments to calculate
the SR TP1 result -- you can get there from SR's constant-velocity
Doppler shift predictions (I think this is probably in the FAQ
somewhere) ::


:: ==SIDEBOX: THE SR TWINS PROBLEM CALCULATION==
::
:: The final clock-retardation in the travelling twin can be calculated
:: from the relativistic Doppler effect, just by calculating how much
:: more slowly the traveller is seen to age when it moves away, and how
:: much more quickly it is seen to age as it approaches, and totalling
:: those two optical observations.
::
:: The "relativistic Doppler" equation used by SR for receding objects,
:: where v is recession velocity, is freq'/freq=SQRT[ (c-v) / (c+v) ]
:: (this convenient form of the equations shows up in the 1905 paper)
:: For an /approach/ velocity, we just invert the velocity sign.
:: So ... if the traveller notes that the outward and return journeys each
:: take the same time, "T" years, then the stay-at-home observer should
:: =see= those two coasting stages, one after the other, to take a total of
::
:: T * 1/SQRT[ (c-v)/(c+v) ] + T * 1/SQRT[ (c+v)/(c-v) ]
::
:: years, which if memory serves me right reduces to just
::
:: 2T * 1/SQRT[ 1 - vv/cc ]
::
:: , which is the standard result.
:: In other words, SR TP1 says that the Earth observer sees the
:: traveller's journey to take longer than the traveller's own timepiece
:: indicates, by the Lorentz ratio.
:: We then normally explain the prediction by saying that the "travelling"
:: clock shows less time elapsing over the journey than the Earth clock,
:: because the travelling clock is time-dilated
::
:: ==SIDEBOX ENDS==

... so if SR's predictions are correct for the clock-rates =seen= in
the signals generated when the object was moving wrt us at constant
speed (and if the turnaround acceleration doesn't generate a
gravitational wave effect that corrupts those earlier and/or later
shift predictions) then this is the "physical" outcome of the
experiment, and GR would seem to have no option but to agree with it.

OTOH, if its NOT the correct result (because of accleration effects
bleeding through to affect the "coasting" signals), then the SR
community shouldn't be claiming that the TP1 Lorentz result is correct
or trustworthy, and schools and textbooks shouldn't be teaching it to
poor bewildered schoolkids as an example of how the universe works,
and telling them to simply suspend disbelief and ignore their
intuition and accept it.
And it seems that this kind of of "bleedthrough" is forbidden under GR
because of the characteristic properties of the SR Doppler formulae,
so if we say "SR is right but SR TP1 is wrong" , we seem to end up
also saying that the SR shift equations themselves have to be wrong,
and we lose everything.



A small historical detour to provide a bit of perspective to how
acceleration screws things up under some other theories::

:: ===SIDE-BOX - TWINS PARADOXES UNDER EARLIER MODELS=====
::
:: If we try the same mechanical Doppler shift calculations for other
:: theories that were kicking about around the turn of ther C19th/C20th,
:: we find that most of those could also be used to claim that the
:: travelling twin ages less ... but under most of them, this
:: calculation is technically invalid.
:: For instance, if we repeat the earlier exercise but substitute in the
:: old Newtonian emission theory Doppler formulae, we might /think/ that
:: the total time seen for the round-trip journey by the home observer
:: would then be
::
:: T/ (c-v)/c + T/ (c+v)/c
:: , which I dimly recall reducing to
::
:: T/ ( 1 - vv/cc )
::
:: , which would /seem/ to be telling us that under Newtonian mechanics,
:: the twins problem generates an even stronger clock-slowing effect than
:: under SR!
::
:: But actually, we don't say that NM predicts any round-trip
:: velocity-based clock-slowing effect in this situation, because with
:: pure ballistic emission theory overlaid on a "flat" background, the
:: total elapsed earth-time is still 2T, becuase the Earth observer sees
:: part of the two signal streams to be overlapping.
:: OTOH, if we enforce a proper light-metric on Newtonian theory by
:: introducing relativistic light-dragging effects, we seem to get
:: another variation in the theme ... that the "travelling" clock again
:: returns in 2T years Earth-time, but that the acceleration towards the
:: observer causes a gravitational wavefront that proceeds in a
:: desperately nonlinear way and manages to blueshift parts of the
:: redshifted signal that belonged to the earlier constant-velocity
:: outward trip.
::
:: Now, to a GR person, that probably sounds like some desperately-
:: illegal effect made up on the spur of the moment, but in fact it's pretty
:: "old" ... Visser and others have now shown that the same acceleration
: effect effect already shows up in "mundane" classical pre-SR acoustics
:: and fluid dynamics, where it turns out to provide a straightforward physical
:: mechanism for Hawking radiation.
:: Newtonian physics allows matter accelerated towards the outside
:: observer to kick light through an event horizon ... smoothing the old
:: ballistic-emitter model to impose a regulated light-metric then gives us a
:: description in which the acceleration of a mass towards the observer
:: seems to produce a gravitational blueshift wavefront whose effects
:: "bleed through" the horizon and affect earlier parts of the signal stream
:: that are still in flight.
::
:: It would be useful if GR could invoke the same behaviour to resolve
:: the Black Hole Information Paradox, but apparently GR can't do this
:: ... when you look into why not, the fault seems to be with the
:: properties associated with SR's "relativistic Doppler" formula
::
:: ==SIDEBOX ENDS========================


So, bizarrely enough, there's a kind of relationship between the way
that we treat SR's (non-gravitational) description of of the original
twins problem, and the way that we treat QM's modifications of GR's
gravitational predictions about black holes.


==================


So ... again, does anyone in the GR community know of any work in the
last fifty years that has fixed the apparent incompatability between
GR and SR TP1?
Normally when I ask, I get crossly told that I've clearly
misunderstood SR or misunderstood GR, and that no such problem has
ever been reported ... and then when I provide references, they shut
up and I never hear from them again on the subject.

Perhaps the problem /has/ been resolved since the 1950's, and a
solution published, and perhaps I just missed it on my literature
search a few years back ... but I wouldn't count on it, most people
that I come across have never heard of there ever having been a
claimed problem, much less know of a solution.


Personally, I suspect that the GR people never did manage to solve the
conflict between SR and GR, and that that's why they had to resort to
hacking off all the parts of GR that overlapped with SR, to make a
direct comparison impossible.
Because once you are allowed to start making those direct comparisons
you seem to end up concluding that SR has to be wrong ... either
structurally wrong, or numerically wrong, or both.

So I think the pattern of deletions and gaps seems to tell a story.
Unfortunately its a story where the GR community don't seem to come
out of it very well.


=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: "What's Big Blue doing anyway?"
: "I am preparing."
: "It's interesting to me that preparing looks
: a great bit like sitting on your ass."
: -- Spike and The Judge, "Buffy the Vampire Slayer"
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 04:53:42 UTC
Permalink
"Two clocks that tick at different rates must be separated by a gravitational gradient"
This is simply the inverse of the general "Huyghens' Principle"
argument that Einstein used in his 1911 paper:
if a supposed real clockrate differential also affects "light-clocks"
(eg a pulse bouncing between two parallel mirrored plates), as it
must, then our clockrate differential is also a lightspeed
differential. And then Huyghens' Principle will predict that light is
deflected towards the region of "slower" light region, matter
containing EM energy must be deflected there too by internal radiation
pressure, and (invoking Eotvos' Principle) all forms of matter must be
deflected in the same way (otherwise we'd have objects deflected
differently according to how much of their internal energy was in EM
form).
So ... a timeflow differential is also a lightspeed differential and a
gravitational differential.
Running the argument the other way, if we set up a gravitational
gradient, the clocks at the "bottom" of the gradient will tick more
slowly than those at the "top" -- if we have an unbalanced
gravitational field, we also have gravitational time dilation.

Run a few example exercises, and yes, the association between timeflow
and gravity does seem to be general. Under a Machian model, "gravity"
equals "inertia", and by intensifying a gravitational field we are
also intensifying the inertia of objects immersed in it - and
increasing the inertia of a mechanical, nuclear or chemical clock
makes it run more slowly.


This issue very nearly led to Einstein's special theory being
accidentally "disproved" ... in the 1905 electrodynamics paper,
Einstein stuck his neck out slightly too far and said that if the
theory was right, clocks at the equator should run more slowly than
those at the poles.
In fact, a test of this prediction with atomic clocks at the equator
and pole (at sea level) didn't show the predicted effect .. but by
then Einstein had produced his 1911 paper, and the new association
between gravity and timeflow gave the reason for the null result --
when one region of the Earth's surface has a slower rate than another,
the associated gravitational gradient makes water run "downhill"
towards the slower region until the surface clock-rates reach
equilibrium -- so the earth's equatorial bulge can also be taken as
evidence of a variation in clockrate running through the earth's
structure.
So, as a general rule, all /sealevel/ clocks should run at the same
rate.

Anyway, on with the story ...

We've seen how useful the timeflow-differential-as-gravity idea is,
but it seemed to be strangely missing from most (all?) papers and
books on relativity, until 1960 when Hay, Schiffer, Cranshaw and
Egelstaff published the details of their historic test of time
dilation in a centrifuged "clock" (PRL [4], 4, pp165-166 (1960)), and
then the shit hit the fan.
The paper was published alongside another piece describing a test of
the gravitational redshift effect (Cranshaw, Schiffer and Whitehead,
same issue, pp163-165), and H,S et al presented their centrifuge
experiment as being a logical extension of that gravitational test:
: "Einstein's principle of equivalence states that a gravitational field
: is locally indistinguishable from an accelerated system. ...
: therefore ... "

They also conscientiously pointed out that there were two different
ways to calculate the same effect, either by invoking special
relativity and saying that the circling clock ticked more slowly
because of its speed, or by pointing out the centrifuge experienced a
radial Coriolis field, treating this as a legitimate gravitational
field, and calculating the same clock-slowing as a gravitational time
dilation effect (the centrifuge rim's acceleration and speed scale
with rpm and radius in the same way):
: "The expected shift can be calculated in two ways. One can treat the
: acceleration as an effective gravitational field and calculate the difference
: in potential between the source and absorber, or one can obtain the same
: answer using the time dilatation of special relativity. "

When they got that statement past peer review and into print, the
alarm bells seemed to go off. Although the statement seemed innocent
enough (having two different ways of calculating the same effect is
normally a good thing), on further investigation, it seemed that the
two descriptions were not dual, and seemed to be incompatible at a
deep geometrical level. Special relativity was deriving the effect in
the context of "flat spacetime", but the gravitational arguments were
saying that the effect only existed because of curvature, i.e. because
of an explicit /deviation/ from SR's geometry ("Two clocks that tick
at different rates must be separated by a gravitational
differential").
If special relativity had generated the wrong result, we could have
said, "Well, that's fine, we knew all along that the theory wasn't
designed to "do" gravity, so its no big deal, we just have to retrofit
some appropriate curvature terms or switch to GR").
But for SR to seem to be generating the /right/ answer for the /wrong/
reasons ... that would have been a lot more disturbing.

It should really be impossible to have an absolute rate difference in
two clocks nailed to the same plank in flat spacetime. Remove that
special gravitational field (or "curvature"), and the clock-effect
should disappear in its entireity, as a matter of principle. So if SR
was managing to predict the right effect and the right magnitude, it
had to be getting to that answer by an artificial route, and since the
application of SR to these problems doesn't involve adding any new
theoretical machinery, it raises the question of whether perhaps the
entire theory is based on an inappropriate foundation. We'd need to
find some way of being able to say that the "extended SR" results
could be wrong without the core equations also being wrong, and nobody
seemed to be capable of doing that.
True, special relativity seemed inevitable once we assumed flat
spacetime, but had anyone actually proved that the flat spacetime
assumption was legitimate and didn't generate artifacts? Where was the
research since 1905 showing that the SR logic didn't break if we
allowed relatively-moving matter to be associated with deviations from
flat spacetime? The necessary body of work didn't seem to exist.

So by putting their statement into print, Hay-Schiffer-et al seemed to
be forcing physicists to make a fairly stark choice between discarding
the principle of equivalence or splitting special relativity onto
"core" and "extended" theories (and rejecting the "extended" part) or
if they couldn't do that, rejecting special relativity altogether.



Now, we are often told that apparent breakdowns in a major theory like
this are very rare, and that physicists love them. It makes life
exciting, it lets them run out and announce to the public that they
are on the verge of a whole new way of looking at science. It gets
them research funding, it excites their students and helps to attract
the very brightest youngsters into the field, and it gives them a
chance to do brand new research and win Valuable Prizes.

So it's a little surprising to find that, instead of ringing the
newspapers and running through the streets naked shouting "Eureka",
the physics community seems to have reacted to this upset by finding a
third way:

Alfred Schild's paper "Equivalence Principle and red-shift
measurements" (??? [28] 778-780 (1960)) says:
: " The group at Harwell [Hay, Schiffer, etc] has also measured the
: red-shift produced in rotating disks. The question arises whether,
: by virtue of the equivalence principle, such effects in accelerated
: systems are to be regarded as verifications of general relativity.
: There seems to be some confusion on this point and even some
: lack of unanimity among theoretical physicists. It is one of the
: purposes of this note to clear up this question. The confusion is
: unnecessary, because within the framework of the theory of relativity
: the answer is simple and definite. It is "no!" "

After that, silence.
Schild's wording (lack of unanimity? Surely not!) was interesting, and
his idea of a disproof of the gravitational argument is short and
straightforward. Any experiment that can be carried out in a small
spaceborne laboratory MUST in principle agree with special relativity
(says Schild), and since special relativity already predicts the
centrifuge result, general relativity cannot. The role of general
relativity (says Schild) is only to predict the things that are not
already dealt with by SR.
Schild:
: " If /ad hoc/ assumptions are ruled out, the equivalence principle
: leads in a natural manner to a curved spacetime. This is inconsistent
: with special relativity, which deals with flat Minkowski spacetime,
: and with Newtonian gravitation, which is itself inconsistent with
: special relativity. Thus, in the sense of mathematical logic, it is
: meaningless (or uninteresting) to ask for consequences of a
: self-contradictory theoretical system consisting of the equivalence
: principle, special relativity and gravitation. "

So, Schild's solution to the problem seems to be to say that since the
problem is irresolvable without breaking either the equivalence
principle or SR, it cannot be legal to ask the question! So, yes,
(says Schild) the application of the equivalence principle to the
centrifuge experiment does seem to lead to a fundamental
incompatibility with special relativity that cannot be resolved ...
but since we know that the EP is right, and we also "know" that SR is
right (um ...), this proves that the exercise itself is invalid.
Where an argument seems to lead to the destruction of special
relativity, Schild takes this to mean that since special relativity's
correctness is not open to negotiation, we must therefore put up
firewalls to separate these different parts of physics theory so that
they cannot be allowed to conflict with each other, and the question
cannot be asked.


Had Hay et al somehow misinterpreted what Einstein had said about the
philosophical basis of general relativity? Well, no, they hadn't -- in
1921 Einstein had written in Nature (Feb 17, pp.782-784):
:: "Can gravitation and inertia be identical? This question leads
:: directly to the General Theory of Relativity. Is it not possible for
:: me to regard the earth as free from rotation, if I conceive of the
:: centrifugal force, which acts on all bodies at rest relatively to
:: the earth, as being a "real" field of gravitation, or part of such a
:: field? If this idea can be carried out, then we shall have proved in
:: very truth the identity of gravitation and inertia. For the same
:: property which is regarded as /inertia/ from the point of view of a
:: system not taking part in the rotation can be interpreted as
:: /gravitation/ when considered with respect to a system that shares
:: the rotation. ... My conviction of the identity of inertial and
:: gravitational mass aroused within me the feeling of absolute
:: confidence in the correctness of this interpretation. "

So the Hay paper was simply following through on an argument that
Einstein had said he had been "absolutely confident" in, and which he
said had taken him to general relativity.
The only problem was ... that same argument now seemed to lead to the
prospect of the total destruction of the special theory.

With Einstein now safely dead (and unable to complain), the GR
community seems to have decided that the appropriate course of action
was to protect special relativity by retrospectively redefining the
principles of his general theory in order to avoid the conflict ...
Acceleration shifts were now declared to be a matter for SR, not GR,
and experts now said that when Einstein had written that acceleration
was locally indistinguishable from gravitation, well, of course, he
didn't really MEAN it ...

So, in modern sources, you find reassuring statements telling you that
of course special relativity and flat spacetime are appropriate for
centrifuge problems, and gravitational effects are NOT like
acceleration effects, because gravitation involves tidal forces --
this is a little bit embarrassing, because a physicist ought to know
that an object standing on an accelerated platform in deep space also
feels tidal forces too, due to the fact that their feet are always
trying to move upwards faster then their head (finite transmission
speed of forces through the body).

We've now had over forty years of these slightly-strained
redefinitions, and most of the mainstream community probably now
believe that these changes are "necessary" and inevitable, and
justified. However unpleasant it might be to throw away the
philosophical core of Einstein's general theory and turn the thing
into a neutered set of mathematics without a proper foundation ... the
alternative would seem to be discarding the special theory, and expert
opinion says that credible gravitational theories HAVE to reduce to
SR, so the least worst option probably seems (to them) to keep SR and
butcher GR to fit around it with the sections of GR that would overlap
SR (and aloow comparisons between the two approaches) hacked off.

But there's still one problem that they can't make go away by
rewriting history.
"Two clocks that tick at different rates must be separated by a gravitational gradient"
, seems to have no possible disproof.

So it really does seem that SR failed forty-something years ago, and
that nobody's been able to fix it since.



VERDICT:
The centrifuge experiment gives us two sets of conflicting arguments,
"curved" and "flat", that overlap and make the same shift predictions,
but at least one of them must be wrong.

The arguments for curved spacetime in this situation are based on deep
principles and fundamental theory, and the arguments for flat
spacetime are based on ... well ... nothing really, we just decided
that Euclidean geometry was a nice simple default geometry to use if
we could get away with it, and for years we thought that we /were/
getting away with it.
So SR had a good run, and we learned a lot from it, but perhaps it
always was always a kind of disposable stepping stone theory whose
purpose was to keep us going until we got the hang of warped
spacetime.

Or maybe we should have recognised the 1911 gravity-shift argument in
the C19th and gone straight to a warped spacetime theory, perhaps
special relativity is a freak of history that shouldn't really have
ever existed.

Anyhow ... unless someone has some incredible new argument that has
eluded the community until now, I'm pronouncing the time of death to
be (looks at watch) ... 1960.


Next ... had Einstein already baled out?

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: "Everybody knows that the dice are loaded
: Everybody rolls with their fingers crossed
: Everybody knows that the war is over
: Everybody knows the good guys lost
:
: Everybody knows the fight was fixed"
:
: -- "Everybody Knows", Leonard Cohen
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 05:23:58 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
"Two clocks that tick at different rates must be separated by a gravitational gradient"
This is simply the inverse of the general "Huyghens' Principle"
Conundrum #3 dead. SR and gravity are mutually exclusive.

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2004-01-02 18:58:55 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
"Two clocks that tick at different rates must be separated by a
gravitational gradient"
Post by Eric Baird
This is simply the inverse of the general "Huyghens' Principle"
SR and gravity are mutually exclusive.
... so ... the question would seem to be how we should correctly
interpret the significance of this incompatibility.

How deep does it go?
What about situations where gravitational arguments can tell us an
experimental result, but experts say that the result is more correctly
calculated using SR?

It all seems to be rather awkward and political
Conundrum #3 dead.
Not really.

See, in the centrifuge experiment, modern "textbook SR" tells us that
where the gravitaitonal and SR arguments overlap and appear to
conflict, we are supposed to forget about little things like the
equivalence principle and use SR instead, because we "know" that it's
a flat spacetiime problem ... even though GR-like theories tell us
fairly emphatically that as a matter of principle that these are
inherently NOT flat spacetime problems.

So, if you are saying that SR shouldn't be claimed to be theoretically
valid in these situations, I'd tend to agree ... but you would be up
against a range of expert opinion and textbooks like MTW that actually
quote the centrifuge experiment as an example of how well SR works.

And some other experiments that supposedly "prove" SR fall into the
same category as the centrifuge test, so allowing these experiments to
be classified as "gravitational" might remove ther immediate conflict
but would probably involve a certain amount of embarrassment on the
part of people who would have to rewrite textbooks and educational
materials.

So why don't the experts simply split SR into its non-inertial results
(which involve gee-forces) and the purely inertial core predictions?
Assuming that its not all down to ignorance and peer pressure and
embarrassment, that seems to leave the possibility that perhaps these
mathematically-adept experts have found that the application of SR to
these acceleration situations really is inevitable, and that there's
no mathematically-justifiable reason that we can invoke for splitting
the theory.
Perhaps they really have proved to their own satisfaction that if SR
is correct, it really does have to apply to acclerations too (whatever
the physical arguments are against this), and perhaps that's left them
with only one option if they believe that SR is correct ... to
redefine gravitaitonal theory so that it doesn't overlap with SR and
allow the conflicts ot show up.

In that case, the conflict between SR's "acceleration" results with
the equivalence principle would seem to suggest that perhaps something
was deeply wrong with the structure of SR.

Since SR seems to be an inevitable result of applyting the principle
of relativity within flat spacetime, the only thing left for us to
change (assuming that the PoR is correct) would seem to be the
assumption of flat spacetime.


A lot of people have invested a lot in special relativity, and some of
them would probably not be happy at the idea of starting again with
yet another theory of relativity (or would not be happy with having
their authority undermined, by having to admit that perhaps some of
the criticisms of SR might have been valid after all).

I suppose we could sweeten the pill by pointing out that Einstein
actually comes out of all this looking pretty good ... he did (after
all) go on the record in Scientific American saying that he thought
that a proper gravitational theory would be "gravitational" all the
way down, and would not depend on SR as a building block, so from a PR
point of view we could head off the inevitable "Einstein was wrong!"
headlines with "Einstein was right, yet again!" ones.

But then we'd still have to explain to the public why the community
had sat on Einstein's statement for fifty years without following it
up, so I suppose there'd still be a certain amount of embarrassment
there.

Whatever.

Anyway, whatever the outcome, it seems that in order to tidy things
up, we probably either need to rewrite "textbook SR" so that it is not
claimed to have theoretical validity when applied to acceleration
problems, or we need a whole new theory.

Either of those things would involve a pretty major change to current
theory, methinks.


=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: " For I have seen the other place
: And I have walked the other path
: And I have felt the other wind
: And I returned."
: -- "Song of Osiris"
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2004-01-03 03:23:00 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
Post by Eric Baird
"Two clocks that tick at different rates must be separated by a
gravitational gradient"
Post by Eric Baird
This is simply the inverse of the general "Huyghens' Principle"
SR and gravity are mutually exclusive.
... so ... the question would seem to be how we should correctly
interpret the significance of this incompatibility.
How deep does it go?
What about situations where gravitational arguments can tell us an
experimental result, but experts say that the result is more correctly
calculated using SR?
It all seems to be rather awkward and political
Conundrum #3 dead.
Not really.
See, in the centrifuge experiment, modern "textbook SR" tells us that
where the gravitaitonal and SR arguments overlap and appear to
conflict, we are supposed to forget about little things like the
equivalence principle and use SR instead, because we "know" that it's
a flat spacetiime problem ... even though GR-like theories tell us
fairly emphatically that as a matter of principle that these are
inherently NOT flat spacetime problems.
So, if you are saying that SR shouldn't be claimed to be theoretically
valid in these situations, I'd tend to agree ... but you would be up
against a range of expert opinion and textbooks like MTW that actually
quote the centrifuge experiment as an example of how well SR works.
And some other experiments that supposedly "prove" SR fall into the
same category as the centrifuge test, so allowing these experiments to
be classified as "gravitational" might remove ther immediate conflict
but would probably involve a certain amount of embarrassment on the
part of people who would have to rewrite textbooks and educational
materials.
So why don't the experts simply split SR into its non-inertial results
(which involve gee-forces) and the purely inertial core predictions?
Assuming that its not all down to ignorance and peer pressure and
embarrassment, that seems to leave the possibility that perhaps these
mathematically-adept experts have found that the application of SR to
these acceleration situations really is inevitable, and that there's
no mathematically-justifiable reason that we can invoke for splitting
the theory.
Perhaps they really have proved to their own satisfaction that if SR
is correct, it really does have to apply to acclerations too (whatever
the physical arguments are against this), and perhaps that's left them
with only one option if they believe that SR is correct ... to
redefine gravitaitonal theory so that it doesn't overlap with SR and
allow the conflicts ot show up.
In that case, the conflict between SR's "acceleration" results with
the equivalence principle would seem to suggest that perhaps something
was deeply wrong with the structure of SR.
Since SR seems to be an inevitable result of applyting the principle
of relativity within flat spacetime, the only thing left for us to
change (assuming that the PoR is correct) would seem to be the
assumption of flat spacetime.
A lot of people have invested a lot in special relativity, and some of
them would probably not be happy at the idea of starting again with
yet another theory of relativity (or would not be happy with having
their authority undermined, by having to admit that perhaps some of
the criticisms of SR might have been valid after all).
I suppose we could sweeten the pill by pointing out that Einstein
actually comes out of all this looking pretty good ... he did (after
all) go on the record in Scientific American saying that he thought
that a proper gravitational theory would be "gravitational" all the
way down, and would not depend on SR as a building block, so from a PR
point of view we could head off the inevitable "Einstein was wrong!"
headlines with "Einstein was right, yet again!" ones.
But then we'd still have to explain to the public why the community
had sat on Einstein's statement for fifty years without following it
up, so I suppose there'd still be a certain amount of embarrassment
there.
Whatever.
Anyway, whatever the outcome, it seems that in order to tidy things
up, we probably either need to rewrite "textbook SR" so that it is not
claimed to have theoretical validity when applied to acceleration
problems, or we need a whole new theory.
Either of those things would involve a pretty major change to current
theory, methinks.
I suppose it comes down to horse shoes and hand grenades. "Close enough"
is good enough?

The point is that you can create all sorts of "failures" on the part of SR,
when curved space is involved. As you have correctly pointed out, SR is
not a curved space theory.

So straining at gnats, however fun it might be, is not the point. The
point is SR has not been "killed", but is valid only over a certain range
of problem-sets. The range is based on your ability to measure, and the
preciseness required of your answer.

So conundrum #3, as killing SR, is in fact dead.

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2004-01-16 15:46:45 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by Eric Baird
Anyway, whatever the outcome, it seems that in order to tidy things
up, we probably either need to rewrite "textbook SR" so that it is not
claimed to have theoretical validity when applied to acceleration
problems, or we need a whole new theory.
Either of those things would involve a pretty major change to current
theory, methinks.
I suppose it comes down to horse shoes and hand grenades. "Close enough"
is good enough?
Yep, "close enough" is probably adequate for a lot of current
engineering work, but if we are talking about /theoretical/ validity,
if a theory is wrong, it's wrong.
The question then becomes: _how_ wrong is the theory, and what are the
consequences of its wrongness?

Special relativity currently depends on the assumption of flat
spacetime being valid for moving-body problems involving
arbitrarily-high energy denisites, and when we get into the
"relativistic" range, that assumption becomes less and less realistic
(even assuming that it was ever realistic in the first place,
Machian/GR-type arguments suggest that it wasn't).
So we need to know:
How far do the curvature effects "missing" from SR affect the final
predictions?
If the missing effects are also "relativistic" (presumably they are),
then presumably "SR+curvature" gives a different set of relativistic
equations for real-life situations ... so what are those equations,
and where can one read about their characteristics?
If you are an engineer, where do you go to look up how the real-life
physics is expected to diverge from special relativity's description?

OTOH, if SR is giving us the /correct/ numerical predictions for many
of these situations, from the wrong geometry, then we need to study
if, where and how that inappropriate geometry may throw the physics
off in other ways.


This is all basic quality-control stuff ... if you build a theory on
certain simplifying assumptions, it's fine to see how far that theory
can be stretched before it fails, but at some point one is then
supposed to go back and work out how far the final structure and
predictions of the theory depended on those simplifications. It's a
"sanity-check" thing. If the final form of the theory is very
sensitive to those simplifying assumptions, it's likely to be a bad
theory.



Now, somehow, after nearly a century of work on SR, all this critical
background work still seems to be missing from the literature.

We know that the basic assumptions of SR are incompatable with wider
gravitational theory, so we know that there's currently a /logical/
flaw in "SR&GR", but AFAIK, nobody's ever yet been able to show that
there's a different way of deriving the same SR relationships in a way
that IS compatable with gravitational theory. It does seem that the
structure of SR is critically sensitive to the assumption of perfectly
flat spacetime, but there seems to be no published research exploring
the consequences of that dependency.


If you are a theorist wanting to look up how non-SR relativity theory
might diverge from SR's predictions, you can't ... because peer review
says that you can't publish work on non-SR gravitational theory,
because SR is already "known" to be an essential part of any
relativistic model (although how we are supposed to "know" this
without conducting any scientific research into the problem is rather
puzzling).
And if you are a mainstream researcher, and try to do this sort of
background study, and people find out about it, you are going to be in
trouble. It means that you are a "crackpot".
If you are an engineer wanting to know how theorists might expect
relativity theory to diverge from SR, there are no reference sources
for you, because the theorists either don't know, or aren't
publishing.

Having looked at the problem, I think part of the reason for the
silence is probably also a lack of nerve ... people genuinely not
believing the conclusions that the geometry seems to be leading them
towards ... because when you look at these issues, however you try to
slice up the problem, you seem to keep coming back to the same answer,
that SR doesn't seem to be the correct theory, and that's not a
conclusion that people want to believe in or be associated with.
Try to "rescue" SR by retrofitting an additional relativistic Lorentz
term to deal with the missing curvature effects, and then make
matching Lorentz modifications to SR's equations of motion to balance
things out ... and you find that by constructing your "advanced"
curved-spacetime gravitational model with a double transverse
redshift, you've actually stripped out all the modifications that
SR/LET made to newtonian mechanics, and you've reverted to the old
Newtonian relationships that SR replaced
(hands up everyone here who knows that Newtonian theory generates a
Lorentz-squared transverse redshift. Now, hands up everyone who's seen
that result mentioned in a book or peer-reviewed paper.
What, nobody?).
So if we go along this route, we end up concluding that special
relativity might actually have been a step backwards in predictive
accuracy in a lot of ways. The experts will tell you that that idea is
preposterous and that if SR was less accurate than NM they's have
noticed, but since they didn't notice the theoretical Newtonian double
redshift effect, I think their opinions are somewhat untrustworthy
here ... they've been trained to "do" SR, they haven't been trained to
"do" proper comparative theory.


Querying whether the special theory is wrong is probably still a bit
like a Roman Catholic priest querying a Papal Decree. You get
excommunicated and kiss goodbye to your career.
It's simpler just to "believe" what you are told to believe and turn a
blind eye to the inconsistencies.

Which is fine if SR really is correct, but if its wrong, we are just
burying ourselves deeper and deeper as we take more and more extreme
measures to try to protect the theory.
SR's assumption of flat spacetime never was a proper principle, it was
always a simplification, and yet we are now discarding real, proper
fundamental principles of physics like the Equivalence Principle in
order to protect the idea that that simplification doesn't have
consequences.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
The point is that you can create all sorts of "failures" on the part of SR,
when curved space is involved. As you have correctly pointed out, SR is
not a curved space theory.
I don't mind SR being treated as an approximation, but unfortunately
its treated as more than that ... its presented as an inevitable EXACT
solution of any credible gravitational model. Current peer review says
that any curved space theory, or warpdrive or wormhole problem HAS to
reduce to special relativity, or it's wrong.

So, even though SR is declared to be incompatible with curved space
theories, we insist that curved space theories have to be compatible
with SR, and this (I would suggest) has been seriously screwing up the
whole field of relativity research for at least the last half-century.


If we'd followed up Einstein's suggestion, that he now thought that it
was wrong to base gravitational theory on SR, then I think we should
have been able to have a next-generation theory up and running by,
say, 1965. All the pieces have been there and waiting to be assembled
for decades, it just needed researchers with the will to put it all
together.

That would have meant that we would have had the replacement for GR
forty years ago. Didn't happen. And IMO it never will happen while SR
and flat spacetime are still considered to be compulsory.
For a researcher or team to be seen to be tackling this problem, they
would have to publicly be seen to be allowing the possibility that SR
might possibly be wrong, and that I don't think anyone in the
mainstream is brave enough to risk that.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
So straining at gnats, however fun it might be, is not the point.
Perhaps not for engineering work, but for developing new theory or
assessing old theory, it's often the way forward.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
So conundrum #3, as killing SR, is in fact dead.
I think that #3 seems to give us a straight choice, either the full
equivalence principle is wrong, or special relativity (applied to
centrifuge situations) is wrong, or they are both wrong.

From an engineering point of view, this doesn't matter directly,
because we can use either the SR working or the gravitational working
to get the same centrifuge result.

But from a theoretical point of view, the existence of a verifiable
clock-difference really has to be associated with spacetime curvature,
and that curvature really ought to be capable of explaining away the
entire effect. Compensate for that curvature effect and reduce the
thing to flat spacetime, and there should be _no_ residual shift left
for SR to explain. So the SR result may well be numerically right, but
its theoretically wrong --- you simply aren't allowed that sort of
clock-difference in flat spacetime.


If we take away the idea of flat spacetime, we are no longer sure that
SR's underlying Doppler equations are correct, and if they are wrong,
then the theory can't even be relied upon to always predict the shifts
in simple inertial moving-body problems accurately.
With present technology (devised using SR-based engineering theory),
this may not /yet/ be a serious problem, the vast majority of current
particle-accelerator experiments probably come out pretty much the
same regardless of whether you assume the SR or the emission-theory
Doppler relationships. Again, quirks of the math often help to conceal
which shift law is really operating behind the scenes.

But for a few types of accelerator experiment, the difference suddenly
becomes important, and in those experiments, I don't think you will be
able to get the right answers using special relativity. And in fact,
in those tests, there does seem to be an unexpectedly high failure
rate for tests that try to validate SR. It could be coincidence, or it
could be that those experiments are simply diverging from the SR
predictions in ways that the experimenters are not prepared for.


Is SR theoretically dead?
On logical grounds, I think so. SR may be internally consistent, but
if it is not compatible with the rules that our universe actually
operates under, then it's not quite the right theory. We knew that GR
and SR were philosophically incompatable, but probably hoped that they
would end up meshing mathematically and geometrically anyway.
Now it seems that they don't do either of those things.
And if it also turns out to be true that SR is giving us the wrong
basic equations of motion, and that its amended equations are less
accurate than the Newtonian originals, then that will be the theory
pretty much dead. We could still be grateful for SR helping Einstein
to come up with E=mc^2, and for perhaps introducing the idea of time
dilation so that Einstein's general 1911 paper on gravity-shifts was
less shocking, but we'd really have to retire the theory and treat it
as an evolutionary dead-end, a kind of disposable stepping-stone.


Would this make SR dead as a "practical" theory?
Yes and no. If SR is getting the twins result wrong, that will upset a
lot of educationalists, but it's hardly likely to affect much current
engineering. But if SR is getting the basic Doppler relationships
wrong, then this will already be affecting certain engineering
problems (and would explain why some attempted verifications of the SR
shift law have already been showing higher-than-predicted redshifts
due to "unexpected experimental errror").
So it might well be that our technological progress in these areas is
being held back because we don't understand why why our equipment
doesn't want to work the way that we think it ought to. Those
unexpected engineering difficulties might be examples of the "faulty"
apparatus correctly showing non-SR behaviour that we don't know how to
recognise.

So maybe the proportion of experiments that we carry out that do
"work" with SR is so high partly because we tend to concentrate on the
experiments that we can get to work as expected, with SR. With a
next-generation theory predicting different results in those areas,
and letting us design new technologies that exploit new effects,
perhaps we'd see new types of physics where the difference is very
important.
So even if SR is adequate for most experiments being carried out NOW,
it doesn't necessarily mean that if a replacement theory arrived
tomorrow, that SR would be up to the task of describing the new sorts
of experiments that we would then be wanting to carry out a few years
later.




===========================

Going way back ot the original posts, the question I was trying to ask
was this:

If hypothetically, SR really had crashed years ago in some
unrecoverable way that should have told us that the theory was now
finished and that we needed a replacement ... how possible is it that
we could somehow miss all the signs and just continue as before,
oblivious to the fact that we were still using something that should
by rights be considered to be dead?

If SR was a "zombie theory", would most endusers actually know?

I don't think most physicists would be any the wiser.
In fact, if you list the signs that we would expect to see if SR
really had already crashed, they all seem to be out there, along with
the repeated mistakes and exagerrations and mathematical and
historical errors in the literature that you would need in order to be
able to conceal a screwup this big.

But nobody in the mainstream seems to know what they should be looking
out for. Nothing seem to have been published on the subject. Nobody
seems to be properly trained in cross-theory work.


After a century of supposedly intensive study and testing of SR,
there's apparently still no proper general test theory to show for it,
and no references for what we'd expect if SR wasn't the correct
relativistic theory. There don't even seem to be any proper references
to how SR /really/ compares with Newtonian theory, so most
experimenters don't even seem to be able to straight comparison
between SR and what came before.


So lot of our expert opinions on the subject are worthless or
demonstrably wrong, and the really awful thing is that the community
doesn't seem to care.
As long as something seems to support SR, it seems to gets through the
peer review filter, and if it's found to be wrong, well, somehow the
"unhelpful" retraction or correction doesn't seem to happen.

The way things are right now, I think relativity theory has become a
very disreputable subject, and I'm a bit upset about that, because I
count myself as a relativist. I think the positive feedback due to
peer review and education is now so strong that we seem to be locked
into SR regardless of whether its right or wrong, and I honestly don't
know how to break that lock.
I think if we started a research programme tomorrow, we could probably
have most of the replacement theory in a year or so, but the way
things are politically in the community, that might not happen for
another fifty years, or longer, and even then it's probably going to
have to happen as an experimental "lucky accident" that catches the
community so much by surprise that it somehow slips through the peer
review net before people realise what's happening.

I find it all a bit depressing, actually.


=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: Q: How many SR advocates does it take to change a light bulb?
: A: None. the bulb was expected to burn out. It doesn't need changing.
Androcles
2004-01-16 16:27:22 UTC
Permalink
"Eric Baird" <***@compuserve.com> wrote in message news:***@4ax.com...
[snip]
Post by Eric Baird
Is SR theoretically dead?
On logical grounds, I think so. SR may be internally consistent,
Not so, sorry.
http://www.androc1es.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/Fundamental_rv_2.0.htm
Post by Eric Baird
but
if it is not compatible with the rules that our universe actually
operates under, then it's not quite the right theory. We knew that GR
and SR were philosophically incompatable, but probably hoped that they
would end up meshing mathematically and geometrically anyway.
Now it seems that they don't do either of those things.
And if it also turns out to be true that SR is giving us the wrong
basic equations of motion, and that its amended equations are less
accurate than the Newtonian originals, then that will be the theory
pretty much dead. We could still be grateful for SR helping Einstein
to come up with E=mc^2,
Langevin, actually.
Ref: "Evidence Against Emission Theories" J. G. Fox, Amer. J. Phys. 33, 1
(1965).

Einstein came up with E = mc^2 (1/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)-1),
ref.
http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
Post by Eric Baird
and for perhaps introducing the idea of time
dilation so that Einstein's general 1911 paper on gravity-shifts was
less shocking, but we'd really have to retire the theory and treat it
as an evolutionary dead-end, a kind of disposable stepping-stone.
Would this make SR dead as a "practical" theory?
Yes and no. If SR is getting the twins result wrong, that will upset a
lot of educationalists, but it's hardly likely to affect much current
engineering. But if SR is getting the basic Doppler relationships
wrong, then this will already be affecting certain engineering
problems (and would explain why some attempted verifications of the SR
shift law have already been showing higher-than-predicted redshifts
due to "unexpected experimental errror").
For light in a medium such as air,

f' = f. (c_air +u)/ (c_air + v)
where u is the velocity of the observer, v the velocity of the source.
(same equation as for sound)
for light from a star,
f' = f.(c+u)/c, c the emission velocity of light, u the relative velocity of
the source.

[snip]
Post by Eric Baird
I find it all a bit depressing, actually.
Try the back door, astronomy.
That is where all science began, so it is really the front door anyway.
http://www.androc1es.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/actual_data.htm

I too share your depression.

Androcles
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2004-01-17 17:00:38 UTC
Permalink
...
Post by Eric Baird
But nobody in the mainstream seems to know what they should be looking
out for. Nothing seem to have been published on the subject. Nobody
seems to be properly trained in cross-theory work.
After a century of supposedly intensive study and testing of SR,
there's apparently still no proper general test theory to show for it,
and no references for what we'd expect if SR wasn't the correct
relativistic theory. There don't even seem to be any proper references
to how SR /really/ compares with Newtonian theory, so most
experimenters don't even seem to be able to straight comparison
between SR and what came before.
Sounds like a good topic for a book that should do well. There is
documentation available for everything you seek, so compilation should be a
joy. If you feel a burning desire to see these things, then others likely
do too.

As to the rest, I don't see any strong disagreement with your points.
However there is good agreement between SR and GR as relates to the GPS
satellites... most of their time dilation is an "SR" effect, which is
countered slightly by their position in Earth's gravity well.

GR works well locally. I personally don't think GR fits well as a
Universal theory, but I have nothing better to offer.

David A. Smith
Oriel36
2004-01-19 15:25:41 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by Eric Baird
Anyway, whatever the outcome, it seems that in order to tidy things
up, we probably either need to rewrite "textbook SR" so that it is not
claimed to have theoretical validity when applied to acceleration
problems, or we need a whole new theory.
Either of those things would involve a pretty major change to current
theory, methinks.
I suppose it comes down to horse shoes and hand grenades. "Close enough"
is good enough?
Yep, "close enough" is probably adequate for a lot of current
engineering work, but if we are talking about /theoretical/ validity,
if a theory is wrong, it's wrong.
The question then becomes: _how_ wrong is the theory, and what are the
consequences of its wrongness?
Relativity reduces the observable effects of finite light distance to
mathematical notation ('c') and effectively robs it of its
astronomical significance.The so-called masterstroke of 'c2' in e=mc2
is almost a taunt and act of defiance to those who are prepared to
use the pronounced observable effects of finite light distance on a
large cosmological scale even though these effects are noticed at
short distances -Io and Roemer for instance.

In your website,you make the common error in designating Newton's
'absolute' space as conditional on gravitation and aether whereas
nothing in the original manuscripts would support it.

http://arxiv.org/ftp/physics/papers/0011/0011003.pdf

"The fictitious matter which is imagined as filling the whole of space
is of no use for explaining the phenomena of Nature, since the motions
of the planets and comets are better explained without it, by means of
gravity; and it has never yet been explained how this matter accounts
for gravity. The only thing which matter of this sort could do, would
be to interfere with and slow down the motions of those large
celestial bodies, and weaken the order of Nature; and in the
microscopic pores of bodies, it would put a stop to the vibrations of
their parts which their heat and all their active force consists in.
Further, since matter of this sort is not only completely useless, but
would actually interfere with the operations of Nature, and [314]
weaken them, there is no solid reason why we should believe in any
such matter at all. Consequently, it is to be utterly rejected."

Optics 1704

Following on from this,you have no justification for the stock
standard relativistic appeal to Newton's designation of absolute space
as either containing aether or containing gravitational significance.

"I likewise call attractions and impulses, in the same sense,
accelerative, and motive; and use the words attraction, impulse or
propensity of any sort towards a centre, promiscuously, and
indifferently, one for another; considering those forces not
physically, but mathematically: wherefore, the reader is not to
imagine, that by those words, I anywhere take upon me to define the
kind, or the manner of any action, the causes or the physical reason
thereof, or that I attribute forces, in a true and physical sense, to
certain centres (which are only mathematical points); when at any time
I happen to speak of centres as attracting, or as endued with
attractive powers."

http://members.tripod.com/~gravitee/definitions.htm#time

You may only associate absolute and relative space in the context of
astronomical methods of that era insofar as retrograde motion and
generally ground based observations of the primary planets were
translated into idealised motions of the primary planets.
Post by Eric Baird
Special relativity currently depends on the assumption of flat
spacetime being valid for moving-body problems involving
arbitrarily-high energy denisites, and when we get into the
"relativistic" range, that assumption becomes less and less realistic
(even assuming that it was ever realistic in the first place,
Machian/GR-type arguments suggest that it wasn't).
How far do the curvature effects "missing" from SR affect the final
predictions?
If the missing effects are also "relativistic" (presumably they are),
then presumably "SR+curvature" gives a different set of relativistic
equations for real-life situations ... so what are those equations,
and where can one read about their characteristics?
If you are an engineer, where do you go to look up how the real-life
physics is expected to diverge from special relativity's description?
The contemporary mind should find Albert's justification for 'warped
space' an assault on the eyes.Even in 1920 with the cosmological scale
yet to be discovered in terms of galaxies the reasons approach
insanity.


"This conception is in itself not very satisfactory. It is still less
satisfactory because it leads to the result that the light emitted by
the stars and also individual stars of the stellar system are
perpetually passing out into infinite space, never to return, and
without ever again coming into interaction with other objects of
nature. Such a finite material universe would be destined to become
gradually but systematically impoverished."



"If we ponder over the question as to how the universe, considered as
a
whole, is to be regarded, the first answer that suggests itself to us
is surely this: As regards space (and time) the universe is infinite.
There are stars everywhere, so that the density of matter, although
very variable in detail, is nevertheless on the average everywhere the
same. In other words: However far we might travel through space, we
should find everywhere an attenuated swarm of fixed stars of
approximately the same kind and density.
This view is not in harmony with the theory of Newton. The latter
theory rather requires that the universe should have a kind of centre
in which the density of the stars is a maximum, and that as we proceed
outwards from this centre the group-density of the stars should
diminish, until finally, at great distances, it is succeeded by an
infinite region of emptiness. The stellar universe ought to be a
finite island in the infinite ocean of space."

http://www.bartleby.com/173/30.html
Post by Eric Baird
OTOH, if SR is giving us the /correct/ numerical predictions for many
of these situations, from the wrong geometry, then we need to study
if, where and how that inappropriate geometry may throw the physics
off in other ways.
This is all basic quality-control stuff ... if you build a theory on
certain simplifying assumptions, it's fine to see how far that theory
can be stretched before it fails, but at some point one is then
supposed to go back and work out how far the final structure and
predictions of the theory depended on those simplifications. It's a
"sanity-check" thing. If the final form of the theory is very
sensitive to those simplifying assumptions, it's likely to be a bad
theory.
Now, somehow, after nearly a century of work on SR, all this critical
background work still seems to be missing from the literature.
We know that the basic assumptions of SR are incompatable with wider
gravitational theory, so we know that there's currently a /logical/
flaw in "SR&GR", but AFAIK, nobody's ever yet been able to show that
there's a different way of deriving the same SR relationships in a way
that IS compatable with gravitational theory. It does seem that the
structure of SR is critically sensitive to the assumption of perfectly
flat spacetime, but there seems to be no published research exploring
the consequences of that dependency.
If you are a theorist wanting to look up how non-SR relativity theory
might diverge from SR's predictions, you can't ... because peer review
says that you can't publish work on non-SR gravitational theory,
because SR is already "known" to be an essential part of any
relativistic model (although how we are supposed to "know" this
without conducting any scientific research into the problem is rather
puzzling).
And if you are a mainstream researcher, and try to do this sort of
background study, and people find out about it, you are going to be in
trouble. It means that you are a "crackpot".
If you are an engineer wanting to know how theorists might expect
relativity theory to diverge from SR, there are no reference sources
for you, because the theorists either don't know, or aren't
publishing.
There are many points of entry however I notice it is exceptional to
come across a participant willing to tackle the problematic Scholium
IV of the Principia where the original definitions and distinctions
between absolute/relative time,space and motion are found.

Regardless of the objections in defining absolute/relative time,Newton
is perfectly and astronomically correct in terms of the Equation of
Time,unfortunately you snip the relevant text and frame it in terms of
Mach/Albert.

"Absolute time, in astronomy, is distinguished from relative, by the
equation or correlation of the vulgar time. For the natural days are
truly unequal, though they are commonly considered as equal and used
for a measure of time; astronomers correct this inequality for their
more accurate deducing of the celestial motions."
Post by Eric Baird
Having looked at the problem, I think part of the reason for the
silence is probably also a lack of nerve ... people genuinely not
believing the conclusions that the geometry seems to be leading them
towards ... because when you look at these issues, however you try to
slice up the problem, you seem to keep coming back to the same answer,
that SR doesn't seem to be the correct theory, and that's not a
conclusion that people want to believe in or be associated with.
Try to "rescue" SR by retrofitting an additional relativistic Lorentz
term to deal with the missing curvature effects, and then make
matching Lorentz modifications to SR's equations of motion to balance
things out ... and you find that by constructing your "advanced"
curved-spacetime gravitational model with a double transverse
redshift, you've actually stripped out all the modifications that
SR/LET made to newtonian mechanics, and you've reverted to the old
Newtonian relationships that SR replaced
(hands up everyone here who knows that Newtonian theory generates a
Lorentz-squared transverse redshift. Now, hands up everyone who's seen
that result mentioned in a book or peer-reviewed paper.
What, nobody?).
So if we go along this route, we end up concluding that special
relativity might actually have been a step backwards in predictive
accuracy in a lot of ways. The experts will tell you that that idea is
preposterous and that if SR was less accurate than NM they's have
noticed, but since they didn't notice the theoretical Newtonian double
redshift effect, I think their opinions are somewhat untrustworthy
here ... they've been trained to "do" SR, they haven't been trained to
"do" proper comparative theory.
Again,if you wish to see how backwards -


"If we ponder over the question as to how the universe, considered as
a whole, is to be regarded......This conception is in itself not very
satisfactory. It is still less satisfactory because it leads to the
result that the light emitted by the stars and also individual stars
of the stellar system are perpetually passing out into infinite space,
never to return, and without ever again coming into interaction with
other objects of nature. Such a finite material universe would be
destined to become gradually but systematically impoverished "

http://www.bartleby.com/173/30.html

This lament by Albert in 1920 constitutes his justifaction for 4D
imposed on cosmological structure,I can't believe it and can't imagine
why anyone would consider it as anything but approaching insanity.
Post by Eric Baird
Querying whether the special theory is wrong is probably still a bit
like a Roman Catholic priest querying a Papal Decree. You get
excommunicated and kiss goodbye to your career.
It's simpler just to "believe" what you are told to believe and turn a
blind eye to the inconsistencies.
Which is fine if SR really is correct, but if its wrong, we are just
burying ourselves deeper and deeper as we take more and more extreme
measures to try to protect the theory.
SR's assumption of flat spacetime never was a proper principle, it was
always a simplification, and yet we are now discarding real, proper
fundamental principles of physics like the Equivalence Principle in
order to protect the idea that that simplification doesn't have
consequences.
Finite light distance conditions what we observe and specifically in
terms of cosmological structure and motion,dilute the effects of
finite light distance into mathematical notation if you wish and
create definitional equivocation out of its original conception by
Roemer from the anomalous motion of Io but you are no longer doing
astronomy.Like the Scholium IV it appears that few participants have
little regard for Romer's insight which register tiny variations with
the solar system but are enormous on large cosmological scales.

http://dibinst.mit.edu/BURNDY/OnlinePubs/Roemer/index.html
Post by Eric Baird
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
The point is that you can create all sorts of "failures" on the part of SR,
when curved space is involved. As you have correctly pointed out, SR is
not a curved space theory.
I don't mind SR being treated as an approximation, but unfortunately
its treated as more than that ... its presented as an inevitable EXACT
solution of any credible gravitational model. Current peer review says
that any curved space theory, or warpdrive or wormhole problem HAS to
reduce to special relativity, or it's wrong.
So, even though SR is declared to be incompatible with curved space
theories, we insist that curved space theories have to be compatible
with SR, and this (I would suggest) has been seriously screwing up the
whole field of relativity research for at least the last half-century.
If we'd followed up Einstein's suggestion, that he now thought that it
was wrong to base gravitational theory on SR, then I think we should
have been able to have a next-generation theory up and running by,
say, 1965. All the pieces have been there and waiting to be assembled
for decades, it just needed researchers with the will to put it all
together.
You must be prepared to state clearly just what the observational
consequences entail,Albert went out on a limb and give his
cosmological outlook based on 'curved space' and you must do the same.
Post by Eric Baird
That would have meant that we would have had the replacement for GR
forty years ago. Didn't happen. And IMO it never will happen while SR
and flat spacetime are still considered to be compulsory.
For a researcher or team to be seen to be tackling this problem, they
would have to publicly be seen to be allowing the possibility that SR
might possibly be wrong, and that I don't think anyone in the
mainstream is brave enough to risk that.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
So straining at gnats, however fun it might be, is not the point.
Perhaps not for engineering work, but for developing new theory or
assessing old theory, it's often the way forward.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
So conundrum #3, as killing SR, is in fact dead.
I think that #3 seems to give us a straight choice, either the full
equivalence principle is wrong, or special relativity (applied to
centrifuge situations) is wrong, or they are both wrong.
From an engineering point of view, this doesn't matter directly,
because we can use either the SR working or the gravitational working
to get the same centrifuge result.
But from a theoretical point of view, the existence of a verifiable
clock-difference really has to be associated with spacetime curvature,
and that curvature really ought to be capable of explaining away the
entire effect. Compensate for that curvature effect and reduce the
thing to flat spacetime, and there should be _no_ residual shift left
for SR to explain. So the SR result may well be numerically right, but
its theoretically wrong --- you simply aren't allowed that sort of
clock-difference in flat spacetime.
If we take away the idea of flat spacetime, we are no longer sure that
SR's underlying Doppler equations are correct, and if they are wrong,
then the theory can't even be relied upon to always predict the shifts
in simple inertial moving-body problems accurately.
With present technology (devised using SR-based engineering theory),
this may not /yet/ be a serious problem, the vast majority of current
particle-accelerator experiments probably come out pretty much the
same regardless of whether you assume the SR or the emission-theory
Doppler relationships. Again, quirks of the math often help to conceal
which shift law is really operating behind the scenes.
But for a few types of accelerator experiment, the difference suddenly
becomes important, and in those experiments, I don't think you will be
able to get the right answers using special relativity. And in fact,
in those tests, there does seem to be an unexpectedly high failure
rate for tests that try to validate SR. It could be coincidence, or it
could be that those experiments are simply diverging from the SR
predictions in ways that the experimenters are not prepared for.
Is SR theoretically dead?
On logical grounds, I think so. SR may be internally consistent, but
if it is not compatible with the rules that our universe actually
operates under, then it's not quite the right theory. We knew that GR
and SR were philosophically incompatable, but probably hoped that they
would end up meshing mathematically and geometrically anyway.
Now it seems that they don't do either of those things.
And if it also turns out to be true that SR is giving us the wrong
basic equations of motion, and that its amended equations are less
accurate than the Newtonian originals, then that will be the theory
pretty much dead. We could still be grateful for SR helping Einstein
to come up with E=mc^2, and for perhaps introducing the idea of time
dilation so that Einstein's general 1911 paper on gravity-shifts was
less shocking, but we'd really have to retire the theory and treat it
as an evolutionary dead-end, a kind of disposable stepping-stone.
It is ironic the the sci.physics faqs show Albert,e=mc2 and a picture
of a galaxy side by side.In that jungle of images all that is bad in
contemporary thinking (if you call it that) emerges.

"This view is not in harmony with the theory of Newton. The latter
theory rather requires that the universe should have a kind of centre
in which the density of the stars is a maximum, and that as we proceed
outwards from this centre the group-density of the stars should
diminish, until finally, at great distances, it is succeeded by an
infinite region of emptiness. The stellar universe ought to be a
finite island in the infinite ocean of space."

In 1920 there was no stellar center to consider but in 1923 there was
and remains the most useful and magnificent structure and motion to
consider.
Post by Eric Baird
Would this make SR dead as a "practical" theory?
Yes and no. If SR is getting the twins result wrong, that will upset a
lot of educationalists, but it's hardly likely to affect much current
engineering. But if SR is getting the basic Doppler relationships
wrong, then this will already be affecting certain engineering
problems (and would explain why some attempted verifications of the SR
shift law have already been showing higher-than-predicted redshifts
due to "unexpected experimental errror").
So it might well be that our technological progress in these areas is
being held back because we don't understand why why our equipment
doesn't want to work the way that we think it ought to. Those
unexpected engineering difficulties might be examples of the "faulty"
apparatus correctly showing non-SR behaviour that we don't know how to
recognise.
So maybe the proportion of experiments that we carry out that do
"work" with SR is so high partly because we tend to concentrate on the
experiments that we can get to work as expected, with SR. With a
next-generation theory predicting different results in those areas,
and letting us design new technologies that exploit new effects,
perhaps we'd see new types of physics where the difference is very
important.
So even if SR is adequate for most experiments being carried out NOW,
it doesn't necessarily mean that if a replacement theory arrived
tomorrow, that SR would be up to the task of describing the new sorts
of experiments that we would then be wanting to carry out a few years
later.
Nobody cares anymore,one theory is no better or worse than the next
and there is a very good reason why talk.origins fills 6 pages in a
google newsreader and sci.physics half that amount and most of that is
spam.

If you want to achieve 'time' travel,review the original texts from
yesteryear and comprehend in what context these manuscripts were
written,the future will take care of itself.
Post by Eric Baird
===========================
Going way back ot the original posts, the question I was trying to ask
If hypothetically, SR really had crashed years ago in some
unrecoverable way that should have told us that the theory was now
finished and that we needed a replacement ... how possible is it that
we could somehow miss all the signs and just continue as before,
oblivious to the fact that we were still using something that should
by rights be considered to be dead?
If SR was a "zombie theory", would most endusers actually know?
I don't think most physicists would be any the wiser.
In fact, if you list the signs that we would expect to see if SR
really had already crashed, they all seem to be out there, along with
the repeated mistakes and exagerrations and mathematical and
historical errors in the literature that you would need in order to be
able to conceal a screwup this big.
But nobody in the mainstream seems to know what they should be looking
out for. Nothing seem to have been published on the subject. Nobody
seems to be properly trained in cross-theory work.
After a century of supposedly intensive study and testing of SR,
there's apparently still no proper general test theory to show for it,
and no references for what we'd expect if SR wasn't the correct
relativistic theory. There don't even seem to be any proper references
to how SR /really/ compares with Newtonian theory, so most
experimenters don't even seem to be able to straight comparison
between SR and what came before.
So lot of our expert opinions on the subject are worthless or
demonstrably wrong, and the really awful thing is that the community
doesn't seem to care.
As long as something seems to support SR, it seems to gets through the
peer review filter, and if it's found to be wrong, well, somehow the
"unhelpful" retraction or correction doesn't seem to happen.
The way things are right now, I think relativity theory has become a
very disreputable subject, and I'm a bit upset about that, because I
count myself as a relativist. I think the positive feedback due to
peer review and education is now so strong that we seem to be locked
into SR regardless of whether its right or wrong, and I honestly don't
know how to break that lock.
I think if we started a research programme tomorrow, we could probably
have most of the replacement theory in a year or so, but the way
things are politically in the community, that might not happen for
another fifty years, or longer, and even then it's probably going to
have to happen as an experimental "lucky accident" that catches the
community so much by surprise that it somehow slips through the peer
review net before people realise what's happening.
I find it all a bit depressing, actually.
=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: Q: How many SR advocates does it take to change a light bulb?
: A: None. the bulb was expected to burn out. It doesn't need changing.
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 04:56:30 UTC
Permalink
"Two clocks that tick at different rates must be separated by a gravitational gradient"
This is simply the inverse of the general "Huyghens' Principle"
argument that Einstein used in his 1911 paper:
if a supposed real clockrate differential also affects "light-clocks"
(eg a pulse bouncing between two parallel mirrored plates), as it
must, then our clockrate differential is also a lightspeed
differential. And then Huyghens' Principle will predict that light is
deflected towards the region of "slower" light region, matter
containing EM energy must be deflected there too by internal radiation
pressure, and (invoking Eotvos' Principle) all forms of matter must be
deflected in the same way (otherwise we'd have objects deflected
differently according to how much of their internal energy was in EM
form).
So ... a timeflow differential is also a lightspeed differential and a
gravitational differential.
Running the argument the other way, if we set up a gravitational
gradient, the clocks at the "bottom" of the gradient will tick more
slowly than those at the "top" -- if we have an unbalanced
gravitational field, we also have gravitational time dilation.

Run a few example exercises, and yes, the association between timeflow
and gravity does seem to be general. Under a Machian model, "gravity"
equals "inertia", and by intensifying a gravitational field we are
also intensifying the inertia of objects immersed in it - and
increasing the inertia of a mechanical, nuclear or chemical clock
makes it run more slowly.


This issue very nearly led to Einstein's special theory being
accidentally "disproved" ... in the 1905 electrodynamics paper,
Einstein stuck his neck out slightly too far and said that if the
theory was right, clocks at the equator should run more slowly than
those at the poles.
In fact, a test of this prediction with atomic clocks at the equator
and pole (at sea level) didn't show the predicted effect .. but by
then Einstein had produced his 1911 paper, and the new association
between gravity and timeflow gave the reason for the null result --
when one region of the Earth's surface has a slower rate than another,
the associated gravitational gradient makes water run "downhill"
towards the slower region until the surface clock-rates reach
equilibrium -- so the earth's equatorial bulge can also be taken as
evidence of a variation in clockrate running through the earth's
structure.
So, as a general rule, all /sealevel/ clocks should run at the same
rate.

Anyway, on with the story ...

We've seen how useful the timeflow-differential-as-gravity idea is,
but it seemed to be strangely missing from most (all?) papers and
books on relativity, until 1960 when Hay, Schiffer, Cranshaw and
Egelstaff published the details of their historic test of time
dilation in a centrifuged "clock" (PRL [4], 4, pp165-166 (1960)), and
then the shit hit the fan.
The paper was published alongside another piece describing a test of
the gravitational redshift effect (Cranshaw, Schiffer and Whitehead,
same issue, pp163-165), and H,S et al presented their centrifuge
experiment as being a logical extension of that gravitational test:
: "Einstein's principle of equivalence states that a gravitational field
: is locally indistinguishable from an accelerated system. ...
: therefore ... "

They also conscientiously pointed out that there were two different
ways to calculate the same effect, either by invoking special
relativity and saying that the circling clock ticked more slowly
because of its speed, or by pointing out the centrifuge experienced a
radial Coriolis field, treating this as a legitimate gravitational
field, and calculating the same clock-slowing as a gravitational time
dilation effect (the centrifuge rim's acceleration and speed scale
with rpm and radius in the same way):
: "The expected shift can be calculated in two ways. One can treat the
: acceleration as an effective gravitational field and calculate the difference
: in potential between the source and absorber, or one can obtain the same
: answer using the time dilatation of special relativity. "

When they got that statement past peer review and into print, the
alarm bells seemed to go off. Although the statement seemed innocent
enough (having two different ways of calculating the same effect is
normally a good thing), on further investigation, it seemed that the
two descriptions were not dual, and seemed to be incompatible at a
deep geometrical level. Special relativity was deriving the effect in
the context of "flat spacetime", but the gravitational arguments were
saying that the effect only existed because of curvature, i.e. because
of an explicit /deviation/ from SR's geometry ("Two clocks that tick
at different rates must be separated by a gravitational
differential").
If special relativity had generated the wrong result, we could have
said, "Well, that's fine, we knew all along that the theory wasn't
designed to "do" gravity, so its no big deal, we just have to retrofit
some appropriate curvature terms or switch to GR").
But for SR to seem to be generating the /right/ answer for the /wrong/
reasons ... that would have been a lot more disturbing.

It should really be impossible to have an absolute rate difference in
two clocks nailed to the same plank in flat spacetime. Remove that
special gravitational field (or "curvature"), and the clock-effect
should disappear in its entireity, as a matter of principle. So if SR
was managing to predict the right effect and the right magnitude, it
had to be getting to that answer by an artificial route, and since the
application of SR to these problems doesn't involve adding any new
theoretical machinery, it raises the question of whether perhaps the
entire theory is based on an inappropriate foundation. We'd need to
find some way of being able to say that the "extended SR" results
could be wrong without the core equations also being wrong, and nobody
seemed to be capable of doing that.
True, special relativity seemed inevitable once we assumed flat
spacetime, but had anyone actually proved that the flat spacetime
assumption was legitimate and didn't generate artifacts? Where was the
research since 1905 showing that the SR logic didn't break if we
allowed relatively-moving matter to be associated with deviations from
flat spacetime? The necessary body of work didn't seem to exist.

So by putting their statement into print, Hay-Schiffer-et al seemed to
be forcing physicists to make a fairly stark choice between discarding
the principle of equivalence or splitting special relativity onto
"core" and "extended" theories (and rejecting the "extended" part) or
if they couldn't do that, rejecting special relativity altogether.



Now, we are often told that apparent breakdowns in a major theory like
this are very rare, and that physicists love them. It makes life
exciting, it lets them run out and announce to the public that they
are on the verge of a whole new way of looking at science. It gets
them research funding, it excites their students and helps to attract
the very brightest youngsters into the field, and it gives them a
chance to do brand new research and win Valuable Prizes.

So it's a little surprising to find that, instead of ringing the
newspapers and running through the streets naked shouting "Eureka",
the physics community seems to have reacted to this upset by finding a
third way:

Alfred Schild's paper "Equivalence Principle and red-shift
measurements" (??? [28] 778-780 (1960)) says:
: " The group at Harwell [Hay, Schiffer, etc] has also measured the
: red-shift produced in rotating disks. The question arises whether,
: by virtue of the equivalence principle, such effects in accelerated
: systems are to be regarded as verifications of general relativity.
: There seems to be some confusion on this point and even some
: lack of unanimity among theoretical physicists. It is one of the
: purposes of this note to clear up this question. The confusion is
: unnecessary, because within the framework of the theory of relativity
: the answer is simple and definite. It is "no!" "

After that, silence.
Schild's wording (lack of unanimity? Surely not!) was interesting, and
his idea of a disproof of the gravitational argument is short and
straightforward. Any experiment that can be carried out in a small
spaceborne laboratory MUST in principle agree with special relativity
(says Schild), and since special relativity already predicts the
centrifuge result, general relativity cannot. The role of general
relativity (says Schild) is only to predict the things that are not
already dealt with by SR.
Schild:
: " If /ad hoc/ assumptions are ruled out, the equivalence principle
: leads in a natural manner to a curved spacetime. This is inconsistent
: with special relativity, which deals with flat Minkowski spacetime,
: and with Newtonian gravitation, which is itself inconsistent with
: special relativity. Thus, in the sense of mathematical logic, it is
: meaningless (or uninteresting) to ask for consequences of a
: self-contradictory theoretical system consisting of the equivalence
: principle, special relativity and gravitation. "

So, Schild's solution to the problem seems to be to say that since the
problem is irresolvable without breaking either the equivalence
principle or SR, it cannot be legal to ask the question! So, yes,
(says Schild) the application of the equivalence principle to the
centrifuge experiment does seem to lead to a fundamental
incompatibility with special relativity that cannot be resolved ...
but since we know that the EP is right, and we also "know" that SR is
right (um ...), this proves that the exercise itself is invalid.
Where an argument seems to lead to the destruction of special
relativity, Schild takes this to mean that since special relativity's
correctness is not open to negotiation, we must therefore put up
firewalls to separate these different parts of physics theory so that
they cannot be allowed to conflict with each other, and the question
cannot be asked.


Had Hay et al somehow misinterpreted what Einstein had said about the
philosophical basis of general relativity? Well, no, they hadn't -- in
1921 Einstein had written in Nature (Feb 17, pp.782-784):
:: "Can gravitation and inertia be identical? This question leads
:: directly to the General Theory of Relativity. Is it not possible for
:: me to regard the earth as free from rotation, if I conceive of the
:: centrifugal force, which acts on all bodies at rest relatively to
:: the earth, as being a "real" field of gravitation, or part of such a
:: field? If this idea can be carried out, then we shall have proved in
:: very truth the identity of gravitation and inertia. For the same
:: property which is regarded as /inertia/ from the point of view of a
:: system not taking part in the rotation can be interpreted as
:: /gravitation/ when considered with respect to a system that shares
:: the rotation. ... My conviction of the identity of inertial and
:: gravitational mass aroused within me the feeling of absolute
:: confidence in the correctness of this interpretation. "

So the Hay paper was simply following through on an argument that
Einstein had said he had been "absolutely confident" in, and which he
said had taken him to general relativity.
The only problem was ... that same argument now seemed to lead to the
prospect of the total destruction of the special theory.

With Einstein now safely dead (and unable to complain), the GR
community seems to have decided that the appropriate course of action
was to protect special relativity by retrospectively redefining the
principles of his general theory in order to avoid the conflict ...
Acceleration shifts were now declared to be a matter for SR, not GR,
and experts now said that when Einstein had written that acceleration
was locally indistinguishable from gravitation, well, of course, he
didn't really MEAN it ...

So, in modern sources, you find reassuring statements telling you that
of course special relativity and flat spacetime are appropriate for
centrifuge problems, and gravitational effects are NOT like
acceleration effects, because gravitation involves tidal forces --
this is a little bit embarrassing, because a physicist ought to know
that an object standing on an accelerated platform in deep space also
feels tidal forces too, due to the fact that their feet are always
trying to move upwards faster then their head (finite transmission
speed of forces through the body).

We've now had over forty years of these slightly-strained
redefinitions, and most of the mainstream community probably now
believe that these changes are "necessary" and inevitable, and
justified. However unpleasant it might be to throw away the
philosophical core of Einstein's general theory and turn the thing
into a neutered set of mathematics without a proper foundation ... the
alternative would seem to be discarding the special theory, and expert
opinion says that credible gravitational theories HAVE to reduce to
SR, so the least worst option probably seems (to them) to keep SR and
butcher GR to fit around it with the sections of GR that would overlap
SR (and aloow comparisons between the two approaches) hacked off.

But there's still one problem that they can't make go away by
rewriting history.
"Two clocks that tick at different rates must be separated by a gravitational gradient"
, seems to have no possible disproof.

So it really does seem that SR failed forty-something years ago, and
that nobody's been able to fix it since.



VERDICT:
The centrifuge experiment gives us two sets of conflicting arguments,
"curved" and "flat", that overlap and make the same shift predictions,
but at least one of them must be wrong.

The arguments for curved spacetime in this situation are based on deep
principles and fundamental theory, and the arguments for flat
spacetime are based on ... well ... nothing really, we just decided
that Euclidean geometry was a nice simple default geometry to use if
we could get away with it, and for years we thought that we /were/
getting away with it.
So SR had a good run, and we learned a lot from it, but perhaps it
always was always a kind of disposable stepping stone theory whose
purpose was to keep us going until we got the hang of warped
spacetime.

Or maybe we should have recognised the 1911 gravity-shift argument in
the C19th and gone straight to a warped spacetime theory, perhaps
special relativity is a freak of history that shouldn't really have
ever existed.

Anyhow ... unless someone has some incredible new argument that has
eluded the community until now, I'm pronouncing the time of death to
be (looks at watch) ... 1960.


Next ... had Einstein already baled out?

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: "Everybody knows that the dice are loaded
: Everybody rolls with their fingers crossed
: Everybody knows that the war is over
: Everybody knows the good guys lost
:
: Everybody knows the fight was fixed"
:
: -- "Everybody Knows", Leonard Cohen
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 05:08:45 UTC
Permalink
Einstein may have anticipated at least /some/ of the problems thrown
up by the 1960 Hay paper.

When we try to extend special relativity to turn it into a full
gravitational theory, we run into some serious definitional problems.
The trouble seems to be that although SR fulfils its flat-spacetime
design criteria admirably, that design specification would seem to be
in conflict with the design principles that you'd want in a component
of a gravitational theory. They are two very different approaches.

For instance, The General Principle of Relativity is intimately linked
to the Equivalence Principle - the idea that inertia and gravity are
different aspects of the same property and can't be separated, as a
matter of principle. Inertial physics is also gravitational physics.
Real physical matter warps spacetime, radiant energy warps spacetime,
the concentration of kinetic energy that you have when two masses skim
past each other with a "relativistic" velocity warps spacetime. A full
geometrical theory would include all the properties of an experiment's
masses, forces, and states of motion as physical properties of the
metric - by looking at the "shape", we can read off the information
and reconstruct the experiment - what masses are present, where they
are, how they are moving, and so on.

But in an SR universe, those laws are different. We have inertia
without gravity, energy without curvature, and a blank flat
general-purpose metric that contains no information at all about what
is really going on in a region. Our SR observers and emitters are
ghostly mathematical entities whose presence or absence is irrelevant
to the geometry, and although we can choose to mentally project
hypothetical particles and lightbeams onto this background to obtain
the relationships of special relativity, the information for those
real particles can't actually be written into the metric anywhere,
they always have to exist somewhere "off the page".

Einstein referred to this as an "inherent epistemological defect" of
the special theory, but since GR's warped metric was supposed to solve
these issues, things looked good.
Except ... if we live in a "gravitational" universe that operates
according to the GR-type rules, and SR uses a different type of
geometrical rules that can't be made to mesh with that sort of
universe, then how could SR still be the correct description of how
inertial physics operates in that universe? If SR and GR don't "fit"
each other, then how can GR legally be said reduce to SR?
The usual answer was to say that ok, while the SR and GR geometry
might well not be directly compatible, GR's curved metric would yield
"effectively-flat" regions if we zoomed in on it far enough, and the
physics of /those/ regions would then be effectively Euclidean and
would therefore be governed by special relativity
(e.g. Einstein, "Nature" Feb17th 1921, pp782-784).

But if we took the gravitational/geometrical approach seriously, the
existence of a particle or any sort of "interesting" physics in a
region would automatically mean that the region was no longer flat!
If we can derive the Newtonian relationships as a low-energy
low-curvature approximation of parts of a curved metric, and SR
diverges from NM when the energies are higher, then perhaps it might
be easier to say that "curved" theory reduces to Newtonian mechanics
over small flat regions, rather than to SR. Perhaps the curvature
between particles becomes "significant" when those particles have a
relative speed that is a "significant" proportion of the speed of
light. Perhaps SR is a sort of artificial hybrid, attempting to
reproduce some of the higher-energy "curvature" behaviour within an
inappropriately "flat" context. That would allow SR to be an
approximation of the real physics, and perhaps to even contain a lot
of the right relationships, without actually being a subset of the
final theory.

We could attempt to resurrect the SR math and put it on a new modern
footing by rederiving it within the context of a curved metric, or at
least try to show that the SR relationships still hold when there are
small energy-dependent deviations from flat spacetime, but to the best
of my knowledge nobody ever managed to either of these things. It
looks as if perhaps SR and its Minkowski metric are just too perfectly
designed for each other, SR just doesn't seem to "do" curvature.


Anyway, after decades of wrestling with these sorts of problems in an
attempt to construct another next-generation theory, Einstein finally
seemed to come to the conclusion that perhaps trying to get SR to work
as part of a larger gravitational theory was a hopeless cause. If you
tried to produce a gravitational model, and it relied on special
relativity as a building block, then you didn't have a valid
derivation of your model. If the model ended up reproducing some or
all of SR as an afterthought, then okay, fine, but you couldn't use
"must reduce to SR" as part of your theory's initial design spec.
SR derived the properties of "non-gravitational physics", but in a
full gravitational model, "non-gravitational physics" shouldn't exist.
If you started with your full gravitational theory and then
progressively "switched off gravity", the theory shouldn't ultimately
yield flat spacetime and SR, it should give nothingness.


So, in the April 1950 issue of Scientific American, he went public. He
said that he no longer believed that having a split between SR effects
and GR effects was legitimate, and although that approach had seemed
like a good idea at the time, and was understandable in the historical
context, and had been a practical way to proceed at the time, with
hindsight he no longer thought that it had been a valid approach :

: ... all attempts to obtain a deeper
: knowledge of the foundations of physics seem doomed to me unless
: the basic concepts are in accordance with general relativity from
: the beginning.
: ...
: I do not see any reason to assume that the heuristic significance
: of the principle of general relativity is restricted to gravitation
: and that the rest of physics can be dealt with separately on the
: basis of special relativity, with the hope that later on the whole
: may be fitted consistently into a general relativistic scheme. I do
: not think that such an attitude, although historically
: understandable, can be objectively justified.
: ...
: In other words, I do not believe that it is justifiable to ask:
: what would physics look like without gravitation?



VERDICT:
In the last fifty years of clinging to Special Relativity, we don't
seem to have made much significant progress in relativity theory,
apart from some interesting work on black holes (that is probably
undermined by QM anyway). If we'd dropped SR, we might have been able
to come up with Hawking radiation as a classical effect, but instead
we had to wait for the QM guys to find it for us. We are still wasting
time trying to find a way to get GR and HR to mesh, and it /seems/
that they can't be resolved, unless we change the SR shift formulae
... which we can't do while we stay with the SR idea that flat
spacetime is a reasonable assumption when real physical masses are
zipping about at relativistic speeds.

Perhaps we should have taken Einstein's comments more seriously, and
stuck to our principles.

Chalk up a possible time of death as 1950

Now ... about this Hawking Radiation thing ...


=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: " Well, there’s good news and bad news.
: The bad news is that Neil will be taking over both branches, and
: some of you will lose your jobs. Those of you who are kept on will
: have to relocate to Swindon, if you wanna stay. I know, gutting.
: On a more positive note, the good news is, I’ve been promoted,
: so ... every cloud ...
: <pause>
: You’re still thinking about the bad news aren’t you? "
: -- David Brent, "The Office"
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 05:25:18 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
Einstein may have anticipated at least /some/ of the problems thrown
up by the 1960 Hay paper.
When we try to extend special relativity to turn it into a full
gravitational theory, we run into some serious definitional problems.
Like SR and gravity don't mix. Conundrum #4 dead.

How silly are 5 and 6 going to be...

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 18:52:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by Eric Baird
When we try to extend special relativity to turn it into a full
gravitational theory, we run into some serious definitional problems.
Like SR and gravity don't mix. Conundrum #4 dead.
How silly are 5 and 6 going to be...
We agree that SR and gravity don't mix.
The question here was supposed to be whether the degree of
immiscibility was so strong that one should not demand that
gravitational theories should reduce to SR over small regions of
spacetime.

Current mainstream teaching seems to be that, yes, any "credible"
gravitational theory has to reduce to SR (eg CM Will "Theory and
Experiment in Gravitational Physics").

Einstein's article said that he didn't think that that approach should
be used, it was a historical leftover that wasn't justifiable any
more. Mainstreamers references insist that it MUST be used.

So I think we have a conflict of opinion here, in print, that deserves
further consideration.

I don't think that pointing out the disagreement and asking what the
implications might be is "silly".

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 05:23:27 UTC
Permalink
Newtonian theory allowed for something that we now tend to refer to as
a "dark star" (Michell, ~1783). This was an object that was large
enough or dense enough for its surface escape velocity to equal or
exceed the speed of light. The critical radius was r=2M (just like a
modern black hole), but dark stars had event horizons that leaked, and
they could radiate indirectly (albeit rather weakly).

When GR came along, most of its predictions overlapped with earlier
theory, or gave effects that you could wring from older theories once
you retrofitted Einstein's general 1911 gravitational time dilation
argument, or gave effects that you could deduce directly from Mach's
Principle. Its one "Big New Radical Prediction", though, was the
existence of the Black Hole. No more dark stars, said GR, those have
to be replaced by this brand new, simpler object that has the
startlingly novel property that its surface is a perfectly one-way
boundary, and its innards are totally removed from the rest of the
universe. Forever.
This idea captured the imagination of a lot of people and "black hole"
became part of popular language.

In 1974, Hawking published a letter extending a result by Bekenstein,
and claiming that according to quantum theory, r<=2M objects ought to
give off indirect radiation after all ... in other words, they should
appear and behave more like the old dark stars than the new black
holes. They gave off emissions. To date, nobody has been able to find
a problem with the QM argument and nobody has been able to come up
with an accepted explanation of how this can be reconciled with
general relativity.


Now, let's go back to early principles and find out why there's a
disagreement and how we might be able to resolve it, by looking at the
forms of the various sets of Doppler equations.

Normally, we describe special relativity's predictions by first
stating the "Flat Stationary Aether" predictions, and then saying that
SR's predictions are "shorter and redder" by these by the Lorentz
ratio. The corresponding "Newtonian" calculations are then even
"shorter and redder" than SR's, by an additional Lorentz factor
(mathematically, if we take the NM and FSA predictions as limits, SR's
core predictions are precisely intermediate between the two, they are
their root product average).

For a general attack on the black hole emission problem, We'll use the
NM set of relationships (the "reddest", "shortest" set) as a starting
point and then write our prediction for the apparent frequency or
length "X" of an object under various possible relativistic models as
X = X(NM) * 1/ [1-vv/cc]^n
We can then use this to define a continuous range of possible
relativistic theories that can use any of the three major sets of
fundamental Doppler relationships, or anything inbetween.

With this scheme, setting n=0 gives us the default Newtonian
predictions for an indirectly-radiating dark star with a leaky event
horizon and complex nonlinear propagation behaviour through the
horizon, n=0.5 gives us special relativity and a much simpler
inescapable event horizon and n=1 gives us a weaker se tof math
normally associated with the flat spacetime, and no horizon.

In the classical dark star model, the visible frequency as a function
of recession velocity is freq'/freq = (c-v)/c , so for an object
placed at the r=2M surface, outsiders will "see" (?!?) it as having a
clockrate of zero, but the object itself sees the outside universe
clockrate as being merely doubled. So the object would expect to be
able to fire its engines and move outwards through R=2M, to the
surprise of the outsiders who would see some /very/ funny
signal-ordering effects and breakdowns in apparent causality (these
wacky-looking "exotic" effects also show up in conventional mundane
acoustics, so they aren't exactly new).

OTOH, with n=0.5 (the SR shift equations) those two frequencies come
out as zero and infinity, respectively -- any action that the object
takes to escape cannot have any consequences for the outside universe
until an infinite amount of time has passed outside. Ignoring possible
drifts in cosmological parameters during this time, we conclude that
with n=0.5, the object is fundamentally inescapable as a matter of
principle -- it behaves like a modern GR-type black hole.

Now, if SR starts with NM and changes the shift relationships (by the
Lorentz factor) but preserves various fundamental relationships such
as E=mc^2 by altering certain key relationships like momentum and
velocity by the same scaling factor, then presumably we can come up
with a continuous range of possible alternative relationships by
varying our exponent and scaling factor together by the same amount,
giving us the ability to smoothly sweep between the NM, SR and FSA
Doppler relationships.
With this scheme, what exponent value range gives us relativistic
models that include classical Hawking radiation?
Nothing above zero.
In other words, if this is the sweep of possible relativistic theories
that we want to look at, the condition that it must generate Hawking
Radiation classically means that we have to go all the way back to the
original Newtonian equations and delete all of special relativity's
subsequent modifications. We have to start again from scratch.
Since superimposing Newtonian ballistic emission theory on flat
spacetime doesn't produce an orderly light-metric (and generates bad
signal flight-time predictions), the only option open to us would seem
to be to reimpose full local lightspeed constancy by saying that when
you have two masses with different velocities, that that
velocity-differential is expressed as a distortion of the metric that
allows a lightsignal moving between masses to always have a local
value of c when it is emitted or absorbed (i.e. a relativistic
light-dragging model) and then move forward from there to a slightly
different sort of GR-type description that does NOT reduce to
flat-spacetime physics ("GR all the way down").

Current research on the black hole information paradox is difficult.
Some researchers have been coming around to the idea that perhaps the
only option left is a modification of special relativity or its
principles, but to actually suggest that the whole structure was a
mistake ... that's still further than anyone's been prepared to go so
far. Work on classical mechanism for HR has continued, slightly
awkwardly ... Unruh compared the effect to classical acoustic
radiation, Thorne, Price and MacDonald assembled an anthology of black
hole papers in 1986 describing how one could obtain the "new" QM
effects by pretending that a black hole was an "old"
indirectly-radiating object, but they didn't handle the classical
trans-horizon escape mechanism (presumably because that would have
explicitly conflicted with SR&GR). Visser got into print in 1998
(Class.Quant.Grav. [15] 1767-1791) pointing out the existence of the
classical mechanism for transmission through a horizon in some non-SR
models, the legitimacy of referring to it as Hawking radiation, and
the existence of Lorentz-like relationships in pre-SR models. So at
this rate, we should probably see a paper discussing how classical
Newton-nish models lead to particle-pair descriptions in a few years'
time, then maybe a discussion of the basic incompatibility of the SR
relationships with these models five to seven years after that, and
finally a serious suggestion of exploring the idea of dropping the SR
relationships for these problems in ... oooh ... about 2020?

That'll be nearly fifty years after Hawking's paper, long enough for
them to say that they'd tried and exhausted every SR-compatible
option, leaving just the Big Unspoken Possibility. Fifty years seems
reasonable, normally I think 50-70 seems to be the rule for things
like this, based on life expectancies (physics progress seems to speed
up when there's a major plague or war, Newton got the benefit of the
Black Death, Einstein had WW1 and WW2).



VERDICT:
At the current rate of progress, by about 2030-2035, the QM community
might be saying that special relativity really died all the way back
in 1974 and the black hole information paradox was all SR's fault.
Earlier would be nice.


=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: " This is not the thing you meant.
: This is not the way it went.
: This is not your shining star.
: This is just the way things are. "
: -- "Coffee"
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 05:27:29 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
Newtonian theory allowed for something that we now tend to refer to as
a "dark star" (Michell, ~1783). This was an object that was large
enough or dense enough for its surface escape velocity to equal or
exceed the speed of light. The critical radius was r=2M (just like a
modern black hole), but dark stars had event horizons that leaked, and
they could radiate indirectly (albeit rather weakly).
When GR came along, most of its predictions overlapped with earlier
theory, or gave effects that you could wring from older theories once
you retrofitted Einstein's general 1911 gravitational time dilation
argument, or gave effects that you could deduce directly from Mach's
Again, SR and gravity are mutually exclusive. Conundrum #5 dead.

I hope #6 has some effort involved.

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 18:53:38 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Again, SR and gravity are mutually exclusive.
Well, how far do you want to take that statement? :)

Given that we live in a "gravitational" universe, would you say that
perhaps our physics doesn't have to reduce to SR even for things that
we'd normally consider to be basic inertial problems?

If so, fine. If we drop special relativity's shift equations and
revert to the Newtonian set, black holes suddenly become objects that
radiate indirectly by a purely classical mechanism, we solve the Black
Hole Information Paradox, and the biggest disagreement between QM and
classical theory goes away.

Given the publications on classical indirect radiation by various
major players in the field over the last couple of decades, I think
everyone with a "need to know" concened probably appreciates this.

Their problem is ... they can't use that classical explanation for
Hawking Radiation without contradicting special relativity's
predictions for the relationship between velocity and observed
frequency. They could solve the BHIP right now, if they really wanted
to, but only by declaring that special relativity's modifications to
NM were a mistake, and at the moment, I guess that's still considered
to be too high a price to pay.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Conundrum #5 dead.
No, Conundrum #5 is the Black Hole Information Paradox.
It's an issue that has been perplexing some of our smartest physicists
for over two decades now, without an agreed solution.

The list of people who've worked on the subject reads like a "who's
who" of modern black hole theorists, Thorne, Visser, Hawking, Penrose,
etc etc etc.

If you think its a trivial problem , you should consider contacting
some of these people and giving them the good news, I'm sure they'll
be pleased to hear your solution.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
I hope #6 has some effort involved.
:)

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 05:35:11 UTC
Permalink
There are two main ways to force the speed of light to be the same for
all observers (reconciling the principle of relativity with the
principle of the constancy of light):

(1) Light-dragging: the principle of relativity only needs the SoL to
be /locally/ constant for everyone, so if we say that all inertial
objects drag their own local lightspeed with them, that solves the
problem. Unfortunately, we then have to construct quite a
sophisticated model -- either we simply put in arbitrary dragging
terms and leave the theory looking rather makeshift, or we go full out
and construct a curved spacetime description of the resulting
lightbeam geometry. This probably wasn't possible in the C19th --
although various mathematicians were already attempting to use Gauss'
geometry to produce descriptions of a curved gravitational
light-metric associated with Newtonian mechanics before the C20th, it
wasn't until Einstein's 1911 paper that people realised that we had to
warp time coordinates as well as spacial ones to get the thing to
work.

(2) The route taken by SR, to say that there are no dragging effects,
that one observer's locally-measured c-constancy can be extrapolated
through the physics of other distant experiments with different states
of motion, and to use the Fitzgerald-Lorentz method of reconciling
everybody's to show the same value of c, by the use of projective
geometry and a Lorentz remapping of various physical relationships.


Additionally, emission-theory superimposed on a flat background was
fully "relativistic" in the sense that it allowed the outgoing speed
of light to be the same for all observers, and didn't use any sort of
preferred reference frame for the propagation of light, but the idea
that /incoming/ lightspeeds were source-dependent was messy, and gave
some odd optical effects that we don't see in practice. If different
lightsignals overtake each other along the same path, then how does
each lightsignal "remember" its own speed in a "wave" description?
DeSitter pretty much disproved standard emission theory in 1913.
You can fix the particle/wave problems and lock down all local
lightspeeds by assuming that the inertial/gravitational fields of
moving particles have an associated velocity component that regulates
lightspeeds as they pass between material particles. But that's
equivalent to talking about particles dragging light, so "corrected"
emission theory could also be described as a relativistic
implementation of Fresnel's wave-based idea (nicely recombining the
competing particle-and wave-based arguments). Anyway ...

The most famous proponent of light-dragging was probably Augustin
Fresnel. Fizeau set out to test Fresnel's idea that the motion of
nearby matter affected signal propagation speeds, and made
measurements of the speed of light in moving water (1851). He found
that as when the water was flowing against the lightsignal, the light
took longer to reach the other side compared to when the flow was
reversed and the light was travelling with the water. The water
molecules were making it easier for light to travel with them than
against them.
Now, I suppose we could try to explain this away by saying that the
apparent density of water encountered by the upstream signal was
greater because of the larger number of water molecules encountered en
route, or we could rexpress that in terms of there being a
correspondingly greater effective distance to cross when the light was
travelling against the water flow ... but the bottom line is that
Fresnel predicted a physical effect by saying that matter dragged
lightspeeds, and when Fizeau tested the prediction, he found that it
was right.


SO:
Special Relativity tells us that the existence of moving bodies in a
region has no effect on the behaviour of light. Fizeau's experiment
says that it does.
SR tells us that two networks of clocks with relative motion ought to
measure the speed of a single signal sent between them to have the
same speed as their own local speeds of light, creating an apparent
conflict (two differently-moving sets of observers claiming that the
signal moves at c wrt /them/), which SR then helpfully "fixes" for us
by using projective geometry and modifying some of Newton's
relationships. But Fizeau's experiment tells us that both networks of
clocks could agree that the speed of the intermediate signal is /not/
the same as their own local speed of light ... each could legitimately
claim that the light's speed has been modified by its proximity to the
"moving" particles in the other network. With both sets of observers
agreeing that lightspeeds are being dragged, there would is no
discrepancy left for SR to have to explain.

SR people can counter, of course, that SR doesn't have to apply to
Fizeau's experiment, because it involves light sent through a
particulate medium, whereas SR only claims to be valid for light in
vacuum. But if we populate a region of space with an array of physical
clocks (or atoms or molecules acting as clocks), at what point does it
become a particulate medium?
If light is emitted by one particle and received by another, is that
sufficiently "particulate" behaviour to allow a deviation from SR's
strict Euclidean geometry?

And why, if SR does /not/ claim to be valid for the case of light
passing through moving water, do SR references still claim the Fizeau
experiment as being one of the tests that supports SR, by showing the
validity of a velocity-addition formula? Perhaps that's just
understandable cheerleading, on investigation, you find that the
"excellent" agreement between SR and Fizeau in that respect isn't
actually claimed to be any better than the agreement with earlier
theory, and you also find that although modern sources say that
velocity-addition formulae were an SR innovation, they were already in
use in older theories (e.g. emission theory has its own different
velocity-additional formula). The difference with SR was not so much
the use of a VAF, but the treatment of the resulting velocity value as
a "real" velocity rather than an "equivalent" velocity.

The last argument that SR can apply to the Fizeau experiment to
attempt to claim superiority is to point out that the speed of light
in water is slower than that in air, so the "faster" signal in the
moving water is still not breaking SR's standard "speed of light in
vacuum" in the laboratory frame. But given the low speed of light in
water and the low (nonrelativistic!) speed of water flow in Fizeau's
experiment, it's probably difficult to claim this as a significant
success for SR.
But if SR is correct, we should be able to update Fizeau's old 1851
experiment and use a more rarefied medium (to reduce the initial
lightspeed reduction), and then use modern technology to give the
medium a relativistic velocity, and then show that light sent through
or alongside along a relativistic plasma stream or particle beam will
never exceed conventional lightspeed.
That sounds like it would be a great test of special relativity.

But it seems that nobody has yet done it and put SR's claim of an
upper lightspeed limit operating in the Fizeau experiment to the test.
In fact, I'm not sure if anyone's actually done a longitudinal
light-dragging test in the last century (which seems a little odd).
So, why is there nothing in the books more modern than that old test
in Eighteen-something with water pipes? Is it because a more accurate
test might run the risk of producing the "wrong" result? Have people
already tried a particle-accelerator version of the experiment, but
not gotten the experiment to come out "correctly", and as a result
have not published, or have not been accepted by peer review? I'd
expect that if the test had been carried out before the current batch
of textbooks were written, we'd have heard about it somehow.

VERDICT
Catching theoreticians being a bit naughty and selective in the way
that they present the Fizeau test results may be an indication that
perhaps all is not well in the world of relativity academia, but it
doesn't necessarily mean that the special theory itself is wrong.
Similarly, although we could get paranoid about the "missing" Fizeau
particle accelerator experiment update and start constructing
conspiracy theories, that might just be a silly oversight rather than
an indication that experiments have been left out of the record for
not being compatible with SR.

But the existence of a velocity-sensitive lightdragging effect at all
is bad news for special relativity, unless relativists can find some
way to incorporate it in their models as an additional relativistic
effect. And then they'd have to show whether incorporating
relativistic light-dragging modified SR's relationships at all, if so
by how much, and if not, why not.
Because a theory of relativity that doesn't work for particles is
slightly f**ked.

Chalk up the date of death as being a slightly nebulous "maybe" that
stretches from 1851 to the present day, and lets hope that eventually
somebody tries that particle accelerator variation.

Next ...


=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: " Everybody knows that the boat is leaking
: Everybody knows that the captain lied
: Everybody got this broken feeling
: Like their father or their dog just died "
: -- "Everybody Knows", Leonard Cohen
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 05:50:48 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
There are two main ways to force the speed of light to be the same for
all observers (reconciling the principle of relativity with the
Not true at all. Special relativity is already reconciled with a constant
c. In fact this is its postulate #1, that "physics" in a frame is not
affected by the frame's velocity wrt some other object(s).
Post by Eric Baird
(1) Light-dragging: the principle of relativity only needs the SoL to
be /locally/ constant for everyone, so if we say that all inertial
objects drag their own local lightspeed with them, that solves the
problem.
This is a "why", and not part of current physics.
Post by Eric Baird
(2) The route taken by SR, to say that there are no dragging effects,
that one observer's locally-measured c-constancy can be extrapolated
through the physics of other distant experiments with different states
of motion, and to use the Fitzgerald-Lorentz method of reconciling
everybody's to show the same value of c, by the use of projective
geometry and a Lorentz remapping of various physical relationships.
You've actually blended the two "different" theories in this one statement.
SR says you simply get c=c. LET (which is where the transforms come from)
says that geometries (even spacetime geometries) are altered for the moving
rulers and clocks, sufficient to maintain c=c.
Post by Eric Baird
Special Relativity tells us that the existence of moving bodies in a
region has no effect on the behaviour of light.
The physics of the problem doesn't change, true.
Post by Eric Baird
Fizeau's experiment
says that it does.
The result of transmission of light through a moving medium is
unsurprising, since to an observer moving with the water, c_medium should
be seen. And it is.

At least you didn't have gravity in this attempt. But it is still not well
thought out as a challenge to SR.

Here is #7 for you.

Special Relativity is dead because it does not have all the blades that my
Swiss Army knife has. It is limited application. Therefore, it is dead
because I cannot cut cheese with it.

http://adamg.homeunix.net/alphecca/flash/youare.swf

David A. Smith
Minor Crank
2003-12-24 09:43:31 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Special Relativity is dead because it does not have all the blades
that my Swiss Army knife has. It is limited application. Therefore,
it is dead because I cannot cut cheese with it.
Egad! The first -effective- argument against SR that I have -ever-
seen in these newsgroups! I think I had better rethink my entire
position!

:-)

Minor Crank
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 19:51:51 UTC
Permalink
On Tue, 23 Dec 2003 22:50:48 -0700, "N:dlzc D:aol T:com \(dlzc\)" <N:
dlzc1 D:cox T:***@nospam.com> wrote:

...
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
At least you didn't have gravity in this attempt. But it is still not well
thought out as a challenge to SR.
Here is #7 for you.
Special Relativity is dead because it does not have all the blades that my
Swiss Army knife has. It is limited application. Therefore, it is dead
because I cannot cut cheese with it.
But the status of special relativity in the mainstream community is
not that of an individual knife that you can choose to use or not.

It's considered to be compulsory. SR made modifications to the
Newtonian relationships, and those modifications aren't a matter of
pick-and-choose according to your application, they are either
"Physically Correct" or "Physically Incorrect".
Physicists currently assume the former case, and as a result, all
peer-reviewed high-speed physics research has to conform to SR's
modified laws, regardless of whether the work is to do with gravity,
warp drives, or god know what else.



Now ... we obtained that SR math as a unique solution in flat
spacetime, but with the benefit of hindsight we now think that flat
spacetime is a bit of a simplification. It's not quite the way that
things work, but we hope that it's "close enough".

So do the modified SR relationships still survive as a unique solution
when we move away from flat spacetime by the tiniest amount?
I'm not sure that they do -- I tried to derive the SR math legally
without assuming a perfectly flat metric and failed miserably, and I
don't think anyone else has suceeded either (and we've had nearly a
century to get this right).

Unfortunately, if we lose the condition that spacetime is PERFECTLY
flat, we seem to lose the authority to say that our chosen
modifications to Newtonian theory are the correct ones. There might be
other solutions and modifications that work better. Move away from
flat dspacetime by a miniscule amount and it might be that we don;t
change the equations by a miniscule amount, but that we "jump" to a
whole other solution.


So if SR is "wrong" in the respect that it assumes perfectly Euclidean
spacetime, we are not just talking about the risk that physics
increasingly diverges from SR when we increase "gravitational" effects
... it might be that SR's modified relationships are simply wrong,
period, and that SR matches the experimental data as well as it does
because most of the time you can't actually tell the difference
between its predictions and those of Newtonian mechanics.



For a lot of applications, this sort of difference doesn't really
matter much in terms of what you end up predicting. For others (eg the
study of how physics behaves across a horizon) it's critical.

Now, IMO, black hole theory seems to be going wrong in exactly the way
that we'd expect if SR's modified relationships were wrong, and the
best physics brains of our generation seem to have been beating their
heads against a brick wall for years trying to get the thing to work
properly with QM. They can't. The only solution they have put together
that seems to work involves dropping special relativity's modified
mechanics and going all the way back to the previous Newtonian
relationships


At some point, I really think we need to be able to get to the point
where a respected physicist is allowed to stand up and ask, "what if
SR is simply wrong?", without destroying his or her career.

What if, instead of using minimal Euclidean geometry and modifying the
Newtonian concepts of velocity and momentum (SR), we instead use what
we've learnt form GR to fix up Newtonian theory by giving it a metric
with velocity-dependent curvature?
That would seem to work, but in nearly a century, nobody seems to have
been seriously looking at relativistic alternatives to SR.
I think that's really sloppy.

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 05:36:20 UTC
Permalink
"Eric Baird" <***@compuserve.com> wrote in message news:***@4ax.com...

So that anyone following this thread will know, SR is a limited application
theory. It applies only in space that has no curvature, namely no gravity.
If gravity (or acceleration) is present, SR becomes less and less accurate.
Just like Newton's laws apply when velocity is very much less than c, but
fail when velocity is increased beyond your ability to detemine a
difference.

When gravitation (or acceleration) is present, General Relativity is the
correct theory for Mr. Baird to be throwing darts at...

And 5 of his 6 conundra (so far) are poking fun at SR because "it don't do
gravity/acceleration".

David A. Smith
MTGradwell
2003-12-24 12:44:13 UTC
Permalink
In article <oB9Gb.26546$***@fed1read05>, "N:dlzc D:aol T:com \(dlzc\)" <N:
dlzc1 D:cox T:***@nospam.com> writes:

..
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
So that anyone following this thread will know, SR is a limited application
theory. It applies only in space that has no curvature, namely no gravity.
If gravity (or acceleration) is present, SR becomes less and less accurate.
Just like Newton's laws apply when velocity is very much less than c, but
fail when velocity is increased beyond your ability to detemine a
difference.
This could be the appropriate time to introduce my
"blancmange theory", i.e. that everything is made out
of blancmange.

This is a limited application theory. It applies only in a
region that contains no non-blancmange. If anything
other than blancmange is present, the blancmange
theory becomes less and less accurate.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
When gravitation (or acceleration) is present, General Relativity is the
correct theory for Mr. Baird to be throwing darts at...
And 5 of his 6 conundra (so far) are poking fun at SR because "it don't do
gravity/acceleration".
They are criticising SR because in a universe where gravitational
effects are present (such as, e.g. the universe which we happen
to occupy), SR is demonstrably inapplicable.

SR might well be applicable in a universe with no gravitational
effects. There's no way to know this without actually going to
such a universe. But there is no such universe, except perhaps
in our imaginations.

I could argue that SR and the blancmange theory should
both be taught on an equal footing. They are both internally
consistent. There is no obvious physical reason why the
universe shouldn't consist of blancmange. But they are both
falsified by observation; one by the observation of gravitational
effects, and the other by the detection of raspberry jelly.
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 14:39:40 UTC
Permalink
Post by MTGradwell
..
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
So that anyone following this thread will know, SR is a limited application
theory. It applies only in space that has no curvature, namely no gravity.
If gravity (or acceleration) is present, SR becomes less and less accurate.
Just like Newton's laws apply when velocity is very much less than c, but
fail when velocity is increased beyond your ability to detemine a
difference.
This could be the appropriate time to introduce my
"blancmange theory", i.e. that everything is made out
of blancmange.
This is a limited application theory. It applies only in a
region that contains no non-blancmange. If anything
other than blancmange is present, the blancmange
theory becomes less and less accurate.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
When gravitation (or acceleration) is present, General Relativity is the
correct theory for Mr. Baird to be throwing darts at...
And 5 of his 6 conundra (so far) are poking fun at SR because "it don't do
gravity/acceleration".
They are criticising SR because in a universe where gravitational
effects are present (such as, e.g. the universe which we happen
to occupy), SR is demonstrably inapplicable.
As are Newton's useful three laws. Yet they seem to survive.
Post by MTGradwell
SR might well be applicable in a universe with no gravitational
effects. There's no way to know this without actually going to
such a universe. But there is no such universe, except perhaps
in our imaginations.
"Utility" comes to mind. We don't seem to drive down the road with perfect
precision, yet we largely do well. What is the price of perfect accuracy?
Post by MTGradwell
I could argue that SR and the blancmange theory should
both be taught on an equal footing. They are both internally
consistent. There is no obvious physical reason why the
universe shouldn't consist of blancmange. But they are both
falsified by observation; one by the observation of gravitational
effects, and the other by the detection of raspberry jelly.
So, SR killed Newton, and GR killed SR, and QM killed GR. Is that about
right? Have I missed a step?

David A. Smith
MTGradwell
2003-12-24 22:33:35 UTC
Permalink
In article <NyhGb.26579$***@fed1read05>, "N:dlzc D:aol T:com \(dlzc\)" <N:
dlzc1 D:cox T:***@nospam.com> writes:

..
[MTGradwell]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
They (Mr. Baird's conundrums)
are criticising SR because in a universe where gravitational
effects are present (such as, e.g. the universe which we happen
to occupy), SR is demonstrably inapplicable.
[dlzc]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
As are Newton's useful three laws. Yet they seem to survive.
Er, Newton's laws of motion were applied by Newton
to a universe in which Gravitational effects are present.
They were developed specifically for that purpose. He
used them to explain the motions of planets, comets,
moons, cannonballs and more, under the influence of
gravity. It would be very strange indeed if Newton's laws
could not be applied to a universe where gravitational
effects are present, and would raise the very interesting
question of what Newton was actually doing.

However, SR is fundamentally inconsistent with
gravitational effects. It isn't just that gravity introduces
a small error term which increases as the masses
of the gravitating bodies increase. Introduce just the
slightest amount of gravity, and SR completely falls
apart.

Example: In SR, differently moving inertial observers
can each say that the other's clock is running slow
with respect to their own. They can do this because
the clocks can only be physically colocated once,
at the most. At all other times any comparison has
to be done using signals which have to traverse the
distance between the observers, presumably at a
speed equal to or below that of light.

But now add the effect of a fairly modest gravitational
field. Consider the case e.g. of an astronaut who
follows the earth's orbit, but travelling in the opposite
direction to the earth. He will return to earth exactly
half a year after setting off. If he continues on this
orbit he will re-encounter earth every six months.
The symmetry of the situation seems to imply that
the astronaut will age at exactly the same rate as an
earth-bound twin (if we ignore the effect on the earth
twin of living in the earth's gravitational well). Certainly
it is not possible in this case for there to be *mutual*
time dilation, nor is there a burst of acceleration at the
half way point of the journey introducing an element
of asymmetry, as there is in the usual twins' paradox.

Now the gravitational effect of the sun on the earth
or on an astronaut following earth's orbit isn't negligible.
However it is small enough to be undetectable by local
measurements. An astronaut can determine that he is
following an elliptical orbit around the sun by observing
his position relative to the sun, planets and stars. But
in a similar system which is not illuminated by sunlight
he would have no way to distinguish himself from an
inertial observer, i.e. one who is stationary or following
a straight line path. As a follower of SR he might
expect to age marginally less than his earthbound
twin, and not to meet him again unless he turns
round. He would be wrong on both counts.

You could "explain" this by saying that gravity introduces
an effect which can exactly cancel out the mutual time
dilation predicted by SR, so that free-falling observers
who meet again and again in a gravitational field will age
by equal amounts. But isn't it strange that the dilation
should be so exactly cancelled out, so that there is no
detectable dilation effect in this case? Doesn't that make
you wonder about the detectability of the dilation in other
circumstances?


Another example: In another thread I introduced the case
of two sea-captains whose ships collide. This example was
deliberately non-serious, because I was trying to come up
with something different enough to engage the attention of
a nine-year-old. But it can be used to make a serious point.

Imagine a world in which the speed of light is something small,
100mph say, so that ordinary sailing ships or steamers can
travel at an appreciable fraction of the speed of light. Imagine
that the usual rules apply, so that a fast moving ship appears
to be foreshortened and increased in inertial mass. Both these
effects might be expected to cause the ship to ride lower in
the waves. Being shorter, the ship displaces a smaller volume
of water. And it is more massive too. But of course if a fast
moving ship really was lower in the water, that would be a
distinguishing trait by which absolute motion could be discerned.
Given two ships of identical construction with identical cargoes,
the one which rides lowest in the water is absolutely the fastest.
That is utterly incompatible with SR. SR would presumably
predict that all identically constructed ships would ride equally
low in the water. Inertial mass and gravitational mass seem to
be equal in all cases, as far as we can tell, but in SR we seem
to have alteration in inertial mass with no corresponding change
in gravitational mass. And we have a change in length with no
corresponding change in volume displaced.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
SR might well be applicable in a universe with no gravitational
effects. There's no way to know this without actually going to
such a universe. But there is no such universe, except perhaps
in our imaginations.
"Utility" comes to mind. We don't seem to drive down the road with perfect
precision, yet we largely do well. What is the price of perfect accuracy?
I'm not convinced of the utility of a theory which falls
completely apart whenever you try to apply it to a
universe similar to our own.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
I could argue that SR and the blancmange theory should
both be taught on an equal footing. They are both internally
consistent. There is no obvious physical reason why the
universe shouldn't consist of blancmange. But they are both
falsified by observation; one by the observation of gravitational
effects, and the other by the detection of raspberry jelly.
So, SR killed Newton, and GR killed SR, and QM killed GR. Is that about
right? Have I missed a step?
Not quite right. SR had nothing to do with Newton.
GR was supposed to kill Newton, but whether it did or
not is open to question. GR rests on SR, which is not
the strongest of foundations. QM killed logic, and with
the death of logic everything else died.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
David A. Smith
Martin Gradwell
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-25 05:56:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by MTGradwell
..
[MTGradwell]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
They (Mr. Baird's conundrums)
are criticising SR because in a universe where gravitational
effects are present (such as, e.g. the universe which we happen
to occupy), SR is demonstrably inapplicable.
[dlzc]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
As are Newton's useful three laws. Yet they seem to survive.
Er, Newton's laws of motion were applied by Newton
to a universe in which Gravitational effects are present.
They were developed specifically for that purpose. He
used them to explain the motions of planets, comets,
moons, cannonballs and more, under the influence of
gravity. It would be very strange indeed if Newton's laws
could not be applied to a universe where gravitational
effects are present, and would raise the very interesting
question of what Newton was actually doing.
However, SR is fundamentally inconsistent with
gravitational effects. It isn't just that gravity introduces
a small error term which increases as the masses
of the gravitating bodies increase. Introduce just the
slightest amount of gravity, and SR completely falls
apart.
Not true. SR is adequate to the design of CRTs, and particle accelerators,
yet these continue to function correctly in a gravity field. You must have
a fairly strange definition for "completely falling apart".
Post by MTGradwell
Example: In SR, differently moving inertial observers
can each say that the other's clock is running slow
with respect to their own. They can do this because
the clocks can only be physically colocated once,
at the most. At all other times any comparison has
to be done using signals which have to traverse the
distance between the observers, presumably at a
speed equal to or below that of light.
But now add the effect of a fairly modest gravitational
field. Consider the case e.g. of an astronaut who
follows the earth's orbit, but travelling in the opposite
direction to the earth. He will return to earth exactly
half a year after setting off. If he continues on this
orbit he will re-encounter earth every six months.
The symmetry of the situation seems to imply that
the astronaut will age at exactly the same rate as an
earth-bound twin (if we ignore the effect on the earth
twin of living in the earth's gravitational well). Certainly
it is not possible in this case for there to be *mutual*
time dilation, nor is there a burst of acceleration at the
half way point of the journey introducing an element
of asymmetry, as there is in the usual twins' paradox.
Now the gravitational effect of the sun on the earth
or on an astronaut following earth's orbit isn't negligible.
However it is small enough to be undetectable by local
measurements. An astronaut can determine that he is
following an elliptical orbit around the sun by observing
his position relative to the sun, planets and stars. But
in a similar system which is not illuminated by sunlight
he would have no way to distinguish himself from an
inertial observer, i.e. one who is stationary or following
a straight line path. As a follower of SR he might
expect to age marginally less than his earthbound
twin, and not to meet him again unless he turns
round. He would be wrong on both counts.
You could "explain" this by saying that gravity introduces
an effect which can exactly cancel out the mutual time
dilation predicted by SR, so that free-falling observers
who meet again and again in a gravitational field will age
by equal amounts. But isn't it strange that the dilation
should be so exactly cancelled out, so that there is no
detectable dilation effect in this case? Doesn't that make
you wonder about the detectability of the dilation in other
circumstances?
OK, so your point is that Special Relativity doesn't work in curved space.
That is a given.
Post by MTGradwell
Another example: In another thread I introduced the case
of two sea-captains whose ships collide. This example was
deliberately non-serious, because I was trying to come up
with something different enough to engage the attention of
a nine-year-old. But it can be used to make a serious point.
Imagine a world in which the speed of light is something small,
100mph say, so that ordinary sailing ships or steamers can
travel at an appreciable fraction of the speed of light. Imagine
that the usual rules apply, so that a fast moving ship appears
to be foreshortened and increased in inertial mass. Both these
effects might be expected to cause the ship to ride lower in
the waves.
This is not how ships work. Usually going faster, if they stay afloat,
raises them out of the water. Think hydroplaning.
Post by MTGradwell
Being shorter, the ship displaces a smaller volume
of water. And it is more massive too.
No. Relativistic mass has a vector component, something that wouldn't
contribute to anythign except the "energy density".
Post by MTGradwell
But of course if a fast
moving ship really was lower in the water, that would be a
distinguishing trait by which absolute motion could be discerned.
Given two ships of identical construction with identical cargoes,
the one which rides lowest in the water is absolutely the fastest.
That is utterly incompatible with SR.
As is nearly your entire setup. The faster ship would rise out of the
water.
The moving twin experiences a shorter time duration. This is still SR, and
is still consistent.

And you neglected "drift motion of the sea".
Post by MTGradwell
SR would presumably
predict that all identically constructed ships would ride equally
low in the water.
Why? Different motions result in different observations.
Post by MTGradwell
Inertial mass and gravitational mass seem to
be equal in all cases, as far as we can tell, but in SR we seem
to have alteration in inertial mass with no corresponding change
in gravitational mass. And we have a change in length with no
corresponding change in volume displaced.
No, there is no change in inertial mass. Relativistic mass has a vector
component that inertial mass does not.
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
SR might well be applicable in a universe with no gravitational
effects. There's no way to know this without actually going to
such a universe. But there is no such universe, except perhaps
in our imaginations.
"Utility" comes to mind. We don't seem to drive down the road with perfect
precision, yet we largely do well. What is the price of perfect accuracy?
I'm not convinced of the utility of a theory which falls
completely apart whenever you try to apply it to a
universe similar to our own.
Again, your definition of "falling completely apart" is without foundation.
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
I could argue that SR and the blancmange theory should
both be taught on an equal footing. They are both internally
consistent. There is no obvious physical reason why the
universe shouldn't consist of blancmange. But they are both
falsified by observation; one by the observation of gravitational
effects, and the other by the detection of raspberry jelly.
So, SR killed Newton, and GR killed SR, and QM killed GR. Is that about
right? Have I missed a step?
Not quite right. SR had nothing to do with Newton.
As v/c -> 0, SR devolves to Newton. As m_U -> 0 GR devolves to SR.
Post by MTGradwell
GR was supposed to kill Newton, but whether it did or
not is open to question. GR rests on SR, which is not
the strongest of foundations.
GR does not rest on SR. It holds only a single postulate in common, that
physcis in a frame is no different regardless of the state of motion. GR
simply handles non-inertial, and gravity.
Post by MTGradwell
QM killed logic, and with
the death of logic everything else died.
QM only has to deal with the facts that nature presents us in the Small
World. You and I live in a macroscopic world, where integration is a
reasonable tool to reach across even the smallest dust grain. What QM has
to deal with is the underlying mechanism, upon which macroscopic reality is
just an emergent behaviour.

You would have similar difficulties imagining the behaviour of mankind
based on the known behaviours of your current set of friends. Because it
ain't "logical", but it does follow from local behaviours.

Merry Christmas, by the way.

David A. Smith
MTGradwell
2003-12-26 16:35:41 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
..
[MTGradwell]
However, SR is fundamentally inconsistent with
gravitational effects. It isn't just that gravity introduces
a small error term which increases as the masses
of the gravitating bodies increase. Introduce just the
slightest amount of gravity, and SR completely falls
apart.
[dlzc1]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Not true. SR is adequate to the design of CRTs, and particle accelerators,
yet these continue to function correctly in a gravity field. You must have
a fairly strange definition for "completely falling apart".
What I mean is that the assumptions made in
the formulation of the theory lead to contradictions.
Mutual time dilation may be considered plausible in
a system where inertial observers can meet at most
once. It breaks down when freely falling observers
(whose motion is locally indistinguishable from inertial
motion) can meet again and again. Such observers
*cannot* experience mutual time dilation, and yet as
you say their CRTs, particle accelerators etc. will
continue to function. This suggests to me that it must
be possible to adequately describe the operation of
such devices *without* resorting to mutual time dilation.
And given the simple fact that we live in a universe
where gravitational effects are present, an explanation
which does not rely on mutual time dilation must surely
be preferable.

..
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
Now the gravitational effect of the sun on the earth
or on an astronaut following earth's orbit isn't negligible.
However it is small enough to be undetectable by local
measurements. An astronaut can determine that he is
following an elliptical orbit around the sun by observing
his position relative to the sun, planets and stars. But
in a similar system which is not illuminated by sunlight
he would have no way to distinguish himself from an
inertial observer, i.e. one who is stationary or following
a straight line path. As a follower of SR he might
expect to age marginally less than his earthbound
twin, and not to meet him again unless he turns
round. He would be wrong on both counts.
You could "explain" this by saying that gravity introduces
an effect which can exactly cancel out the mutual time
dilation predicted by SR, so that free-falling observers
who meet again and again in a gravitational field will age
by equal amounts. But isn't it strange that the dilation
should be so exactly cancelled out, so that there is no
detectable dilation effect in this case? Doesn't that make
you wonder about the detectability of the dilation in other
circumstances?
OK, so your point is that Special Relativity doesn't work in curved space.
That is a given.
And if we combine SR with a Newtonian explanation of
gravity, involving centripetal forces in a flat "absolute" space,
we can say that the SR works, in a sense, but we can still
have astronauts travelling considerable distances and returning
to earth without the slightest trace of time dilation effects,
mutual or otherwise. This doesn't disprove SR, but it does
raise significant philosophical questions. How "real" is a dilation
effect which in a simple practical example is apparently entirely
cancelled out by other effects?
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
Another example: In another thread I introduced the case
of two sea-captains whose ships collide. This example was
deliberately non-serious, because I was trying to come up
with something different enough to engage the attention of
a nine-year-old. But it can be used to make a serious point.
Imagine a world in which the speed of light is something small,
100mph say, so that ordinary sailing ships or steamers can
travel at an appreciable fraction of the speed of light. Imagine
that the usual rules apply, so that a fast moving ship appears
to be foreshortened and increased in inertial mass. Both these
effects might be expected to cause the ship to ride lower in
the waves.
This is not how ships work. Usually going faster, if they stay afloat,
raises them out of the water. Think hydroplaning.
The example probably wasn't ideal. The talk about a ship
riding lower in the waves seems to imply the existence of
a medium, the properties of which (density, viscosity. average
velocity etc) are subject to examination. However SR assumes
the absence of a material medium.

I did say "lower in the waves" rather than "lower in the sea",
however. Since it is now generally accepted that there can be
waves without a transmitting medium, nothing that I wrote
implie the presence of a medium, though it may have seemed
to.

Whether ships rise out of the water or sink lower into it,
makes no difference. In either case, the depth of the ship
in the water would convey information about the speed
of the ship relative to the meduim below it (or to "absolute sea",
The SR boating equivalent of "absolute space", if there is
no medium.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
Being shorter, the ship displaces a smaller volume
of water. And it is more massive too.
No. Relativistic mass has a vector component, something that wouldn't
contribute to anythign except the "energy density".
.. and therefore it is not equivalent to gravitational
mass. As I was saying. An yet we knwo from countless
experiments that inertial mass *is* proportional to
gravitational mass.

..

That's all I've got time for at the moment.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Merry Christmas, by the way.
David A. Smith
And the same to you, slightly belated. And Happy new year.

Martin Gradwell
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-26 17:15:36 UTC
Permalink
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
..
[MTGradwell]
However, SR is fundamentally inconsistent with
gravitational effects. It isn't just that gravity introduces
a small error term which increases as the masses
of the gravitating bodies increase. Introduce just the
slightest amount of gravity, and SR completely falls
apart.
[dlzc1]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Not true. SR is adequate to the design of CRTs, and particle
accelerators,
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
yet these continue to function correctly in a gravity field. You must have
a fairly strange definition for "completely falling apart".
What I mean is that the assumptions made in
the formulation of the theory lead to contradictions.
Only one "assumption", that the laws of physics are the same for all
inertial observers.
Post by MTGradwell
Mutual time dilation may be considered plausible in
a system where inertial observers can meet at most
once. It breaks down when freely falling observers
(whose motion is locally indistinguishable from inertial
motion) can meet again and again. Such observers
*cannot* experience mutual time dilation, and yet as
you say their CRTs, particle accelerators etc. will
continue to function. This suggests to me that it must
be possible to adequately describe the operation of
such devices *without* resorting to mutual time dilation.
And given the simple fact that we live in a universe
where gravitational effects are present, an explanation
which does not rely on mutual time dilation must surely
be preferable.
Your objection is noted, however, reality is such that the twin with the
higher |velocity| history ages less. You'll note that your gedanken has
the Earth twin and the counter-rotating twin with the same |velocity|.
Curvature only alters the sign at meetings, and in fact they have the same
sign for half the year as well.

..
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
Now the gravitational effect of the sun on the earth
or on an astronaut following earth's orbit isn't negligible.
However it is small enough to be undetectable by local
measurements. An astronaut can determine that he is
following an elliptical orbit around the sun by observing
his position relative to the sun, planets and stars. But
in a similar system which is not illuminated by sunlight
he would have no way to distinguish himself from an
inertial observer, i.e. one who is stationary or following
a straight line path. As a follower of SR he might
expect to age marginally less than his earthbound
twin, and not to meet him again unless he turns
round. He would be wrong on both counts.
You could "explain" this by saying that gravity introduces
an effect which can exactly cancel out the mutual time
dilation predicted by SR, so that free-falling observers
who meet again and again in a gravitational field will age
by equal amounts. But isn't it strange that the dilation
should be so exactly cancelled out, so that there is no
detectable dilation effect in this case? Doesn't that make
you wonder about the detectability of the dilation in other
circumstances?
OK, so your point is that Special Relativity doesn't work in curved space.
That is a given.
And if we combine SR with a Newtonian explanation of
gravity, involving centripetal forces in a flat "absolute" space,
we can say that the SR works, in a sense, but we can still
have astronauts travelling considerable distances and returning
to earth without the slightest trace of time dilation effects,
mutual or otherwise.
Time dilation is an observed phenomenon. Why should nature allow you to go
to the stars, but have other designs for your constituent parts? Why would
the assembly be more than the sum of the parts?
Post by MTGradwell
This doesn't disprove SR, but it does
raise significant philosophical questions. How "real" is a dilation
effect which in a simple practical example is apparently entirely
cancelled out by other effects?
The extension of the halflife of muons cannot be cancelled out based on
observed velocities. Shapiro time delay (not SR I'll grant) cannot be
cancelled out based on observed velocities. Red and blue shift of accurate
signals that clearly show the relativisitic portion of Doppler shift.

How "real" is the fact that the path you take beween two cities affects the
distance accumulated on the trip?
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
Another example: In another thread I introduced the case
of two sea-captains whose ships collide. This example was
deliberately non-serious, because I was trying to come up
with something different enough to engage the attention of
a nine-year-old. But it can be used to make a serious point.
Imagine a world in which the speed of light is something small,
100mph say, so that ordinary sailing ships or steamers can
travel at an appreciable fraction of the speed of light. Imagine
that the usual rules apply, so that a fast moving ship appears
to be foreshortened and increased in inertial mass. Both these
effects might be expected to cause the ship to ride lower in
the waves.
This is not how ships work. Usually going faster, if they stay afloat,
raises them out of the water. Think hydroplaning.
The example probably wasn't ideal. The talk about a ship
riding lower in the waves seems to imply the existence of
a medium, the properties of which (density, viscosity. average
velocity etc) are subject to examination. However SR assumes
the absence of a material medium.
It doesn't assume the absence of the medium. Only that if the medium
exists, and can be experimentally detected, it must appear the same
regardless of motion of the frame.
Post by MTGradwell
I did say "lower in the waves" rather than "lower in the sea",
however. Since it is now generally accepted that there can be
implie the presence of a medium, though it may have seemed
to.
Whether ships rise out of the water or sink lower into it,
makes no difference. In either case, the depth of the ship
in the water would convey information about the speed
of the ship relative to the meduim below it (or to "absolute sea",
The SR boating equivalent of "absolute space", if there is
no medium.
Notwithstanding objections by greywolf42, *repeatable* experiments have not
detected the aether to be asymmetric based on the motion of the frame, as
long as the frame is not accelerating. Even Newton does not require
"absolute" space, since his theories all use differential measurements.
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
Being shorter, the ship displaces a smaller volume
of water. And it is more massive too.
No. Relativistic mass has a vector component, something that wouldn't
contribute to anythign except the "energy density".
.. and therefore it is not equivalent to gravitational
mass. As I was saying. An yet we knwo from countless
experiments that inertial mass *is* proportional to
gravitational mass.
And relativisitic mass is proportional to nothing. It is a blend of a
scalar and a vector. So therefore "mass density" is meaningless as applies
to relativistic mass. And hence gravitiational and inertial mass have
little to do with relativistic mass, except where v/c << 1.
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Merry Christmas, by the way.
And the same to you, slightly belated. And Happy new year.
Ditto. May the terrorists decide that we all get to argue for another
year.

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2004-01-02 18:28:40 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
..
[MTGradwell]
However, SR is fundamentally inconsistent with
gravitational effects. It isn't just that gravity introduces
a small error term which increases as the masses
of the gravitating bodies increase. Introduce just the
slightest amount of gravity, and SR completely falls
apart.
[dlzc1]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Not true. SR is adequate to the design of CRTs, and particle
accelerators,
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
yet these continue to function correctly in a gravity field. You must
have
Post by MTGradwell
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
a fairly strange definition for "completely falling apart".
What I mean is that the assumptions made in
the formulation of the theory lead to contradictions.
Only one "assumption", that the laws of physics are the same for all
inertial observers.
No, SR also assumes that it is correct to model high-energy problems
involving masses whizzing past each other at "relativistic" speeeds,
by assuming that the spacetime geometry associated with that physics
is totally flat.

Suppose that we have two spaceborne laboratories in free-fall, and a
technician in each laboratory measures their local speed of light to
have the same value and to be isotropic, and they also find that all
other local physics comes out the same in either lab.

That satisfies the idea that local physics is the same for both
inertial observers, but we still have to decide on the correct way to
join up these two different sets of local observations.


There are two immediate ways of doing this:

[1] ... we could say that each laboratory provides a local preferred
frame for the speed of light because of the particulate matter that
forms each enclosed laboratory, and we could suggest that the speed of
light moving between laboratories changes en route ... as light enters
the structure of a laboratory, the extinction theorem tells us that
the speed of the light ought to change in a real physical way to
become isotropic in the laboratory frame.
This behaviour certainly seems to agree with what our experiments tell
us about the way that light interacts with matter (eg Fizeau
experiment).
It's "relativistic" but it's not SR.

In order to have a nice orderly light-metric, we also need the speed
of light to change as it /leaves/ a laboratory (presumably to some
intermediate speed dictated by the average gravitational background,
plus any contributions from nearby moving masses)
Now, if we treat this varying-lightspeed physics in terms of lightbeam
geometry, we end up describing the way that lightpseed stays locally
constant for all masses in terms of warpage of the regions of
spacetime between relatively-moving particles. We go some way to
solving "the particle problem" in that we are now expressing the
complete inertial physics of a given experiment in terms of the
geometry of the metric ... the shape of the metric tells you what
masses you have, how fast they are moving and in what directions .

It becomes the sort of "gravitational" problem that SR doesn't claim
validity for.

[2] ... or, we can take SR's route, declare that the lightbeam
geometry of the region containing _both_ laboratories must be flat,
and say that each lab's concept of local lightspeed being fixed and
anisotropic must extend over a region of spacetime that includes the
other, differently-moving laboratatory.
In order to eliminate possible disagreements between the two lab
observers about which SoL is "really" correct in each lab, we then use
Lorentz geometry and modify Newton's equations so that they work in
the context of Minkowski's geometry. That gives us special relativity.


Now, the big advantage of SR is that it's comparatively
straightforward. By specifying Euclidean geometry (even when we don't
believe it to be appropriate!), we get a simple compact mathematical
description that doesn't use all those nasty scary warped-geometry
things. But to get SR as a unique solution, it does seem that the
assumption of flat spacetime is essential.


What other systems of equations might be conceivable?
Well, if we assume that spacetime is warped by relative motion between
particles, and start off with the Doppler equations appropriate for a
flat observer-stationary aether, then use projective geometry to argue
for a change to SR's "relativistic Doppler" set of equations, and then
finally top the thing off with an _additional_ Lorentz redshift and
contraction to take us to the way that the additional "missing"
curvature effects might project down onto Minkowski's metric, we have
a new set of very special equations equations which are...
... well, funnily enough, they are the old equations used by Newtonian
mechanics.


So although it seems possible to construct a continuum of possible
relativistic theories with different Doppler predictions, there seem
to be two special solutions that jump out at us from the math
... there's one special solution that is "the simplest" in that has
minimal (Euclidean) geometry (but where we have to compensate by
making the math slightly less elegant by retrofitting lots of Lorentz
terms). That's our textbook "special theory".
... and there's another special solution that is the "simplest" in
that it requires minimal corrections to Newton's main equations (but
where we have to compensate by making the geometry more complicated
and accepting curvature as an inescapable part of the model).
That second path probably wasn't an easy option in 1905 because we
still didn't know about gravitational time dilation, so the C19th
mathematicians who'd already been trying to marry Newtonian arguments
with Gaussian geometry hadn't managed it.

But now we've gotten the hang of thje idea of spacetime curvature
(thanks to GR and other similar theories), we can go back and explore
that other, more completist route, and see whether, as well as
apparently explaining more about why physics works as it does, it
might also give more accurate predictions for inertial physics than
SR.

But by now, that expertise in comparative theory seems to have
evaporated. Modern physicists seem to have grown up accepting the idea
that SR is correct and proved beyond reasonable doubt by experiment,
and that SR-compliance is compulsory for any gravitational theory that
is to be considered credible. And they've told the mathematical
researchers that they should only be looking at structures that are
supersets of SR.

So of course, the mathematicians haven't been looking at that apparent
other solution, because, it doesn't "reduce" to SR physics in a
meaningful way ... it's, well, another solution.
The two are very closely related, and share a lot of results in
common, but I'n not sure that you can legally start with SR and get to
the other path, you really seem to have to backtrack, find that
critical branch decision (dependence on Euclidean geometry or not) ad
then explore forwards along the other path.

But having
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Only one "assumption", that the laws of physics are the same for all
inertial observers.
does not appear to be enough to get you to special relativity as a
unique solution.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
And if we combine SR with a Newtonian explanation of
gravity, involving centripetal forces in a flat "absolute" space,
we can say that the SR works, in a sense, but we can still
have astronauts travelling considerable distances and returning
to earth without the slightest trace of time dilation effects,
mutual or otherwise.
Time dilation is an observed phenomenon. Why should nature allow you to go
to the stars, but have other designs for your constituent parts? Why would
the assembly be more than the sum of the parts?
Time dilation is an observed phenomenon ... in experiments that relate
a clock-difference to the acceleration strength and time spent
accelerating. The centrifuge test result is explainable as the
gravitaitonal time-dilation associated with a Coriolis field, the
Hafele-Keating experiment is another example of a centrifuge-type
test, since it involved two clocks circling wrt the background
starfield, and the clock that circles fastest ticks more slowly.

This sort of "physical" time dilation effect can be explained without
recourse to special relativity.
And, when you think about it, that argument that "physical, unarguable
differences in clockrate should be associated with a gravitational
field" would seem to mean that whenever we have a definite clockrate
difference, it's always a "curved spacetime" effect.

If we avoid the "SR and gravity" issue by tackling all those problems
gravitaitonally, that would seem to leave SR's apparent realm of
validity regarding the existence of time dilation effects in
experiments as being "those experiments where the existence of
time-dilation cannot be physically verified".


As mentioned before, the idea outlined in the original twins paradox,
that the travelling twin ages less by an amount that relates to their
velocity and the amount of time travelling at that velocity, but NOT
in a way that can be explained away as a physical acceleration effect
... that idea does not seem to be verified by physical experiment.

And the gravitational arguments seem to suggest that perhaps that sort
of outcome cannot ever be veried by experiment, on principle.
(a verifiable clock-difference means an equivalent gravitational
gradient, so for any "significant" clock-difference, there should be a
similarly "significant" departure from Euclidean geometry -- so if the
experiment does contain a verifiable physical clock-difference, then
since this should be wholly explainable from gravitational principles,
subtracting the "curvature" clockrate difference to leave the
"flat-spacetime" effect should leave ... zero effect).
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by MTGradwell
This doesn't disprove SR, but it does
raise significant philosophical questions. How "real" is a dilation
effect which in a simple practical example is apparently entirely
cancelled out by other effects?
The extension of the halflife of muons cannot be cancelled out based on
observed velocities.
Er .. how exactly do we "observe" these muon velocities?

Do we really measure a theory-independent time interval that it takes
the muon to cross a known distance, or do we measure the incident
energy or momentum of the muon at the detector (or a tracklength) and
then work backwards to a velocity value, by assuming that the SR
relationships are correct? If so, by applying a different theory's
relationships, we would arrive at a different nominal velocity value,
and for these muons that under SR are travelling at very high
proportions of the speed of light, working out their velocities
according to the older Newtonian relationships will normally give a
velocity greater than normal lightspeed.

Since the introduction of SR, it's become quite difficult to get a
general theory-independent method of measuring velocity.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Shapiro time delay (not SR I'll grant) cannot be
cancelled out based on observed velocities.
Red and blue shift of accurate
signals that clearly show the relativisitic portion of Doppler shift.
Err ... yes and no.

We _can_ do tests that clearly show that SR's Doppler relationships
are superior to those would be correct if we just assumed a simple
flat absolute aether stationary in the observer's frame, agreed.
But it's not so easy to show that SR's Doppler relationships are more
accurate than those associated with Newtonian mechanics, which are
also "relativistic", and which also have a "relativistic portion" when
you divide out the usual "observer-frame lightspeed" nonrelativistic
Doppler effect.

I do appreciate that textbooks and reference sources and peer reviewed
papers to seem to give the distinct impression that transverse
redshifts or residual redshifts were an SR innovation, but I'm afraid
they aren't, they showed up under Newtonian mechanics, and also under
just about every dodgy theory that was kicking about in the C19th.

At first, when I worked out the NM tranverse effect and found that it
was a double-Lorentz redshift, I was almost sure that I'd calculated
something wrong, because that disagreed with the history and reference
math in all my modern books. So I checked the calcualtions god knows
how many ways with all sorts of different arguments and lines of
reasoning, and it always came out saying that the textbook story was
wrong, and NM did generate transverse redshifts.
Finally, I hit a library and found an old turn-of-the-century
reference book, and yes, the tranverse effect was already documented
and discussed in print in the context of pre-SR theories.

So it looks as if the entire physics community has collectively
screwed up on this issue.


I think that I can appreciate why ... if, as a critic, even _I_ had
trouble believing my own calculations when they contradicted the
standard belief system that badly, then I guess someone with a more
standard background trying the same exercise would be inclined to
abandon their own calculations as "faulty" for some unknown reason and
to instead go with the "proper" textbook version of reality.

The problem comes when you have an entire community believing in what
they were taught rather than in what the math actually says, and also
not actually checking the educational view of history against
contemporary historical sources ... when that happens, a subject can
slip into a wierd sort of fantasy world.




Now, back to the subject of testing and verification ...


As previously stated, NM yields a double Lorentz redshift where SR
gives a single Lorentz redshift, but since the two sets of theory
disagree about the "correct" velocity values that should be used when
claculating those shifts, it can be difficult to take a complex SR
experiment and safely reanalyse it from scratch using the alternative
set of Doppler relationships.

After a reasonably thourough search a few years back, I found that
after discarding the experiments that weren't easy to reanalyse or
which didn't supply the neccessary low-level data for reanalysis, or
which weren't accurate enough to tell the two sets of equations apart
(or ones where a later experimenter had found fault with the original
claimed accuracy), I was left with just four published experiments.

Of those, two really did seem to say fairly clearly that nature gives
us a single Lorentz redshift rather than a a double. But the other two
found the stronger redhift effect and pretty much said that since
there's no theory that gives transverse redshifts other than SR, it
was still an SR results. They reckoned that their redshift results
must have been too high because of an unexpected problem with the
hardware (as I recall, one suggested that the unexpected extra shift
could be due to mirror recoil, and the other calculated that their
detector must have been misaligned by about one degree)


so I really don't think that we are yet in a position to be able to
say safely SR's Doppler predictions are better than the set that were
appropriate to Newtonian theory. SR _might_ well turn out to be more
accurate, but it might turn out to be less accurate. There doesn't
seem to be any published peer-reviewed test theory that tells
experimenters how to perform this sort of test, or even any
peer-reviewed literature that warns them that NM gives transverse
redshifts too.
If (hypothetically) SR turned out to be less accurate, and we went to
the people who did the two pro-SR tests to ask where those
experimental procedures might have gone wrong, the experimeters would
probably be entitled to turn around and say that it wasn't their fault
and that they had constructed and analysed those experiments in good
faith in the light of the "fact" that a double redshift result wasn't
a possible outcome.

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: " Grown men, he told himself, in flat contradiction of centuries of
: accumulated evidence about the way grown men behave, "do not
: behave like this. "
: -- "So Long and Thanks for All the Fish", Douglas Adams
Bilge
2003-12-26 21:10:32 UTC
Permalink
Post by MTGradwell
[dlzc1]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Not true. SR is adequate to the design of CRTs, and particle accelerators,
yet these continue to function correctly in a gravity field. You must have
a fairly strange definition for "completely falling apart".
What I mean is that the assumptions made in
the formulation of the theory lead to contradictions.
Mutual time dilation may be considered plausible in
a system where inertial observers can meet at most
once.
Inertial observers only can meet once. To meet twice, at least one of
them has to change directions.
Bilge
2003-12-25 17:25:17 UTC
Permalink
Post by MTGradwell
[MTGradwell]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
They (Mr. Baird's conundrums)
are criticising SR because in a universe where gravitational
effects are present (such as, e.g. the universe which we happen
to occupy), SR is demonstrably inapplicable.
[dlzc]
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
As are Newton's useful three laws. Yet they seem to survive.
Er, Newton's laws of motion were applied by Newton
to a universe in which Gravitational effects are present.
They were developed specifically for that purpose. He
used them to explain the motions of planets, comets,
moons, cannonballs and more, under the influence of
gravity. It would be very strange indeed if Newton's laws
could not be applied to a universe where gravitational
effects are present, and would raise the very interesting
question of what Newton was actually doing.
But, it's an easy question to answer. Newton's law of gravity explains
the effects he was able to observe in the era he developed that theory.
So, apparently, it must be a very strange universe. Newton's theory of
gravity does not describe the physics in circumstances where gravity is
the predominant phenomenon needing to be described.
Post by MTGradwell
However, SR is fundamentally inconsistent with
gravitational effects.
What a surprise. Special relativity is not a theory of gravity. However,
in the same limit that newton's theory of gravity works, special relativity
works better.
Post by MTGradwell
It isn't just that gravity introduces a small error term which increases
as the masses of the gravitating bodies increase. Introduce just the
slightest amount of gravity, and SR completely falls apart.
That is completely silly. I can obtain the doppler shift of a light
ray climing in the earth's gravitational field using just special
relativity and a gravitational potential.

[...]
Post by MTGradwell
Not quite right. SR had nothing to do with Newton.
GR was supposed to kill Newton, but whether it did or
not is open to question. GR rests on SR, which is not
the strongest of foundations. QM killed logic, and with
the death of logic everything else died.
The only place logic died was between your ears. I'm also still waiting
for you to debunk rotations as being an invalid coordinate transform or
else explain why only 3 of the 6 proper lorentz transforms are invalid
despite being obtained in the same derivation from the same premises.
MTGradwell
2003-12-29 23:47:36 UTC
Permalink
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
[MTGradwell]
Er, Newton's laws of motion were applied by Newton
to a universe in which Gravitational effects are present.
They were developed specifically for that purpose. He
used them to explain the motions of planets, comets,
moons, cannonballs and more, under the influence of
gravity. It would be very strange indeed if Newton's laws
could not be applied to a universe where gravitational
effects are present, and would raise the very interesting
question of what Newton was actually doing.
[Bilge]
Post by Bilge
But, it's an easy question to answer. Newton's law of gravity explains
the effects he was able to observe in the era he developed that theory.
So, apparently, it must be a very strange universe. Newton's theory of
gravity does not describe the physics in circumstances where gravity is
the predominant phenomenon needing to be described.
What is the predominant phenomenon needing to be described
in the motion of the earth around the sun, the motion of the moon
around the earth, or the fall of an apple? Surely the answer is
gravity. And Newton's theory does pretty adequately describe the
physics associated with these phenomena. In the case of the apple
there is also wind resistance, but for most purposes this is negligible;
and anyway Newton did derive equations to describe the motion of
bodies through resisting media.
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
However, SR is fundamentally inconsistent with
gravitational effects.
What a surprise. Special relativity is not a theory of gravity. However,
in the same limit that newton's theory of gravity works, special relativity
works better.
It isn't clear what you mean by "works better". Certainly it doesn't
provide a better description of the motion of planets or moons or
falling apples. That is because (as you say) it is not a theory of
gravity, so it cannot tell us *anything at all* about these motions.
So in what way, precisely, does SR work better than Newton's
theory of gravity?
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
It isn't just that gravity introduces a small error term which increases
as the masses of the gravitating bodies increase. Introduce just the
slightest amount of gravity, and SR completely falls apart.
That is completely silly. I can obtain the doppler shift of a light
ray climing in the earth's gravitational field using just special
relativity and a gravitational potential.
"gravitational potential" is not a part of SR. Try combining SR with
a Newtonian-style gravitational potential and you get contradictions
because a Newtonian gravitational potential would accelerate
everything, including light, but SR says that the speed of light is
a constant.

There have been claims that SR has been validated in experiments
where gravity is a significant factor, e.g. the plane with a clock that
supposedly lost a few nanoseconds because it flew around for a few
hours over Chesapeake bay. But this claim for one certainly doesn't
stand up to investigation. The moving clock actually *gained* 47.2
Nanoseconds, over a period of 15 hours. The claim is that it gained
52.8 seconds or thereabouts due to the lesser gravitational field at
the cruising height of 30,000 feet (a GR effect), and lost 5.7
nanoseconds or thereabouts because of the back and forth motion
(SR effect). [Source: "Spacetime Physics", Taylor and Wheeler, p133.
Post by Bilge
[...]
Post by MTGradwell
Not quite right. SR had nothing to do with Newton.
GR was supposed to kill Newton, but whether it did or
not is open to question. GR rests on SR, which is not
the strongest of foundations. QM killed logic, and with
the death of logic everything else died.
The only place logic died was between your ears. I'm also still waiting
for you to debunk rotations as being an invalid coordinate transform or
else explain why only 3 of the 6 proper lorentz transforms are invalid
despite being obtained in the same derivation from the same premises.
Rotation is a perfectly valid operation in Euclidean geometry.
And the mathematics of Lorentz transformation is just as
valid in a Minkowski space. But we do not live in a Minkowski
space. The mathematics of the Mandelbrot set is also fully
self-consistent and valid, but I do not conclude from this that
we live in a Mandelbrot set. Do you?
Bilge
2003-12-30 07:50:25 UTC
Permalink
Post by MTGradwell
[Bilge]
Post by Bilge
But, it's an easy question to answer. Newton's law of gravity explains
the effects he was able to observe in the era he developed that theory.
So, apparently, it must be a very strange universe. Newton's theory of
gravity does not describe the physics in circumstances where gravity is
the predominant phenomenon needing to be described.
What is the predominant phenomenon needing to be described
in the motion of the earth around the sun, the motion of the moon
around the earth, or the fall of an apple? Surely the answer is
gravity. And Newton's theory does pretty adequately describe the
physics associated with these phenomena. In the case of the apple
there is also wind resistance, but for most purposes this is negligible;
and anyway Newton did derive equations to describe the motion of
bodies through resisting media.
That totally misses the point. Gravity is extremely weak. Compared
with the electromagnetic forces that are so ubiquitous, that you take
them for granted, gravity isn't even a perturbation. If it were not
for electromagnetic forces, you wouldn't have a planet to stand on.
Newton's theory does not do a very good job describing gravity when
the gravitational field is comparable in strength to the electro-
magnetic field or any other field for that matter.
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
What a surprise. Special relativity is not a theory of gravity. However,
in the same limit that newton's theory of gravity works, special relativity
works better.
It isn't clear what you mean by "works better". Certainly it doesn't
provide a better description of the motion of planets or moons or
falling apples. That is because (as you say) it is not a theory of
gravity, so it cannot tell us *anything at all* about these motions.
So in what way, precisely, does SR work better than Newton's
theory of gravity?
Without special relativity I can't get any approximation for the
gravitational redshift from newton's theory.
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
It isn't just that gravity introduces a small error term which increases
as the masses of the gravitating bodies increase. Introduce just the
slightest amount of gravity, and SR completely falls apart.
That is completely silly. I can obtain the doppler shift of a light
ray climing in the earth's gravitational field using just special
relativity and a gravitational potential.
"gravitational potential" is not a part of SR.
I'm not claiming that it is.
Post by MTGradwell
Try combining SR with
a Newtonian-style gravitational potential and you get contradictions
because a Newtonian gravitational potential would accelerate
everything, including light, but SR says that the speed of light is
a constant.
What's your point? Are you just being dense deliberately or
have you really not absorbed anything in all the time you've
been posting to this newsgroup?
Post by MTGradwell
There have been claims that SR has been validated in experiments
where gravity is a significant factor, e.g. the plane with a clock that
Pound, Rebka and Snider.

[...]
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
The only place logic died was between your ears. I'm also still waiting
for you to debunk rotations as being an invalid coordinate transform or
else explain why only 3 of the 6 proper lorentz transforms are invalid
despite being obtained in the same derivation from the same premises.
Rotation is a perfectly valid operation in Euclidean geometry.
And the mathematics of Lorentz transformation is just as
valid in a Minkowski space. But we do not live in a Minkowski
space.
All of the evidence disagrees with you, but that isn't the issue.
The exact reasons you gave for the lorentz transforms not being
correct apply to euclidean rotations. Either the reasons you gave
for the lorentz transforms being wrong were complete bullshit or
they apply to euclidean rotations. The derivations are identical,
since both come from the same derivation under the same assumption
that physics is unchanged by the displacement x,t -> x',t'.
Post by MTGradwell
The mathematics of the Mandelbrot set is also fully
self-consistent and valid, but I do not conclude from this that
we live in a Mandelbrot set. Do you?
Aside from the fact that your choice of examples happens to be
one for which the role in nature has yet to be known, you still
seem to consider logical fallacies valid arguments.
MTGradwell
2003-12-30 17:34:49 UTC
Permalink
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
[Bilge]
Post by Bilge
But, it's an easy question to answer. Newton's law of gravity explains
the effects he was able to observe in the era he developed that theory.
So, apparently, it must be a very strange universe. Newton's theory of
gravity does not describe the physics in circumstances where gravity is
the predominant phenomenon needing to be described.
[MTGradwell]
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
What is the predominant phenomenon needing to be described
in the motion of the earth around the sun, the motion of the moon
around the earth, or the fall of an apple? Surely the answer is
gravity. And Newton's theory does pretty adequately describe the
physics associated with these phenomena. In the case of the apple
there is also wind resistance, but for most purposes this is negligible;
and anyway Newton did derive equations to describe the motion of
bodies through resisting media.
[bilge]
Post by Bilge
That totally misses the point. Gravity is extremely weak.
That is an extraordinary generalisation.
Post by Bilge
Compared
with the electromagnetic forces that are so ubiquitous, that you take
them for granted, gravity isn't even a perturbation.
Gravity drags planets around. Try doing that with electromagnetism.
It stops our atmosphere from escaping, and has done so for billions
of years. Try doing that with electromagnetism. It causes groups
of galaxies to coalesce into larger galaxies. And it causes apples
to fall from trees. The trajectory of the falling apple is determined
by gravity right up to the instant when it collides with the earth.
EM force only becomes significant when there is contact or very
close proximity between the interacting objects.
Post by Bilge
If it were not
for electromagnetic forces, you wouldn't have a planet to stand on.
We would perhaps have a much smaller and denser planet, with
no space between atomic nuclei so that the planet would resemble
a miniature neutron star. But the radius of our planet is approximately
6,378 km. EM forces keep the surface of our planet just 6,378 km
or so away from where it would be if there were no EM forces.
Compared to the millions of light years over which gravitational forces
can have an effect, that is an insignificant distance.
Post by Bilge
Newton's theory does not do a very good job describing gravity when
the gravitational field is comparable in strength to the electro-
magnetic field or any other field for that matter.
You began by saying "Newton's theory of gravity does not
describe the physics in circumstances where gravity is the
predominant phenomenon needing to be described".
Now you say "Newton's theory does not do a very good job
describing gravity when the gravitational field is comparable
in strength to the electro-magnetic field or any other field",
i.e. in circumstances where gravity is*not* the predominant
phenomenon needing to be described. But actually Newton's
theory does an extremely good job even in this case.

An apple resting on the ground may not be falling along the
trajectory that Newton would predict for an object acted on
by gravity alone. But it is pressing down on the earth with a
force equal to its weight. And the earth is pressing upwards
on it with an equal but opposite force. All of this is exactly
according to Newton's laws, and can be verified using
something as unsophisticated as a set of kitchen scales.

I think you are under the impression that EM forces
are strong even when their effect is extremely weak; that
every proton in the earth, for instance, is attracting the
electrons in your body so strongly that they would be
instantly stripped away from you if it wasn't for all the
electrons in the earth exerting an equally stupendous
but opposite force. Now these forces might exist in the
theory, but the only force we encounter in practice is
the resultant obtained by subtracting one from the other,
and that is usually so weak as to be negligible.

Consider. If your bank accidentally credits you with
a trillion dollars, and then instantly issues a debit for
a trillion dollars to cancel the error, that doesn't make
you the richest person in the world, and it doesn't
make you the world's biggest debtor either. All that
matters is the balance. They might not even bother
to show either transaction on your statement, in which
case you would only know about it if they credited
you with a few seconds worth of interest, and forgot
to cancel that interest. And that's how it is with EM.
Only the balance is tangible, therefore only the balance
is real. The huge EM forces that you believe in are
a theoretical construct, used in one particular model
to explain how the balance is arrived at.
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
What a surprise. Special relativity is not a theory of gravity. However,
in the same limit that newton's theory of gravity works, special
relativity
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
works better.
It isn't clear what you mean by "works better". Certainly it doesn't
provide a better description of the motion of planets or moons or
falling apples. That is because (as you say) it is not a theory of
gravity, so it cannot tell us *anything at all* about these motions.
So in what way, precisely, does SR work better than Newton's
theory of gravity?
Without special relativity I can't get any approximation for the
gravitational redshift from newton's theory.
I don't know any reason why you shouldn't be able to
calculate gravitational redshift using Newton's theory.
I can imagine several ways of going about it. We could
e.g. make use of the empirical observation that lower
energy photons are redder. Calculate the kinetic energy
lost or gained by photons as they move upwards or
downwards in the earth's gravitational field, and use this
to derive the change in colour.

..
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
Try combining SR with
a Newtonian-style gravitational potential and you get contradictions
because a Newtonian gravitational potential would accelerate
everything, including light, but SR says that the speed of light is
a constant.
What's your point? Are you just being dense deliberately or
have you really not absorbed anything in all the time you've
been posting to this newsgroup?
I am making my points as clearly as I can. If there is some
specific item that is not clear to you, say what it is and I will
try to restate it more clearly. I have absorbed a lot of things
during the time I have been posting to this newsgroup, but
I'm glad to say that I have managed to avoid being dragged
down to the general level. So no, I am not being dense
deliberately.
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
There have been claims that SR has been validated in experiments
where gravity is a significant factor, e.g. the plane with a clock that
Pound, Rebka and Snider.
Light travelling downwards in a gravitational field gains energy.
Light travelling upwards in a gravitational field loses energy.
A ball bearing travelling downwards in a gravitational field gains energy.
A ball bearing travelling upwards in a gravitational field loses energy.
Spot the similarity.
The gain/loss of energy is a Newtonian prediction, not an SR prediction.
Post by Bilge
[...]
The exact reasons you gave for the lorentz transforms not being
correct apply to euclidean rotations. Either the reasons you gave
for the lorentz transforms being wrong were complete bullshit or
they apply to euclidean rotations.
You'll have to refresh my memory. I may have said in the past
that Lorentz transformations might not be the correct explanation
of various physical phenomena, but I don't think that the maths
of Lorentz transofrmations is any more internally inconsistent than
the maths of Euclidean rotations. Can you link to a post where
I've said otherwise?

..
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
The mathematics of the Mandelbrot set is also fully
self-consistent and valid, but I do not conclude from this that
we live in a Mandelbrot set. Do you?
Aside from the fact that your choice of examples happens to be
one for which the role in nature has yet to be known, you still
seem to consider logical fallacies valid arguments.
The role in nature of the Mandelbrot set is well known. It is to
be printed out as posters and hung up in student bedsits.
I do not consider handwaving generalisations to be valid arguments.
Can you give a specific example of where I have seemed to consider
a logica fallacy a valid argument?
Bilge
2003-12-31 08:44:23 UTC
Permalink
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
[Bilge]
Post by Bilge
But, it's an easy question to answer. Newton's law of gravity explains
the effects he was able to observe in the era he developed that theory.
So, apparently, it must be a very strange universe. Newton's theory of
gravity does not describe the physics in circumstances where gravity is
the predominant phenomenon needing to be described.
[MTGradwell]
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
What is the predominant phenomenon needing to be described
in the motion of the earth around the sun, the motion of the moon
around the earth, or the fall of an apple? Surely the answer is
gravity. And Newton's theory does pretty adequately describe the
physics associated with these phenomena. In the case of the apple
there is also wind resistance, but for most purposes this is negligible;
and anyway Newton did derive equations to describe the motion of
bodies through resisting media.
[bilge]
Post by Bilge
That totally misses the point. Gravity is extremely weak.
That is an extraordinary generalisation.
No it's not. Gravity is 32 orders of magnitude weaker than the weak
interaction, which is 10^2 times weaker than than the electromagnetic
interaction which is 10^4 times weaker than the strong interaction.
How much of a geberalization is 10^32 times weaker than the next
weakest force?

[...]
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
If it were not
for electromagnetic forces, you wouldn't have a planet to stand on.
We would perhaps have a much smaller and denser planet, with
no space between atomic nuclei so that the planet would resemble
a miniature neutron star.
Guess how large that planet would be. Do you realize the density
of a neutron star is around 10^17 kg/m^3? That's about 500,000,000
metric tons per teaspoon.

[...]
Post by MTGradwell
you with a few seconds worth of interest, and forgot
to cancel that interest. And that's how it is with EM.
Only the balance is tangible, therefore only the balance
is real. The huge EM forces that you believe in are
a theoretical construct, used in one particular model
to explain how the balance is arrived at.
I really have no idea what you are babbling on about.

[...]
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
There have been claims that SR has been validated in experiments
where gravity is a significant factor, e.g. the plane with a clock that
Pound, Rebka and Snider.
Light travelling downwards in a gravitational field gains energy.
Light travelling upwards in a gravitational field loses energy.
A ball bearing travelling downwards in a gravitational field gains energy.
A ball bearing travelling upwards in a gravitational field loses energy.
Spot the similarity.
The gain/loss of energy is a Newtonian prediction, not an SR prediction.
Don't be an imbecile. Newtonian mechanics cannot describe light.

[...]
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
The exact reasons you gave for the lorentz transforms not being
correct apply to euclidean rotations. Either the reasons you gave
for the lorentz transforms being wrong were complete bullshit or
they apply to euclidean rotations.
You'll have to refresh my memory.
Sorry. I apologize. I had you confused with marcel luttgens.
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
The mathematics of the Mandelbrot set is also fully
self-consistent and valid, but I do not conclude from this that
we live in a Mandelbrot set. Do you?
Aside from the fact that your choice of examples happens to be
one for which the role in nature has yet to be known, you still
seem to consider logical fallacies valid arguments.
The role in nature of the Mandelbrot set is well known. It is to
be printed out as posters and hung up in student bedsits.
Then perhaps you would like to explain it to the world. Try reading
"The Fractal Geometry of Nature", by mandelbrot, and see if you think it's
so obvious. I really find it ironic that cranks continually comment about
scientists no having an open open mind. I guess in order to be open
minded, one needs to take long disproven theories seriously and reject out
of hand anything which hasn't been studied. I have no real opinion one
way or the other on fractals, but I also realize that self-similarity
is recurring theme in nature.
MTGradwell
2003-12-31 16:21:59 UTC
Permalink
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
[MTGradwell]
Post by Bilge
.. In the case of the apple
there is also wind resistance, but for most purposes this is negligible;
and anyway Newton did derive equations to describe the motion of
bodies through resisting media.
[bilge]
Post by Bilge
That totally misses the point. Gravity is extremely weak.
[MTGradwell]
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
That is an extraordinary generalisation.
No it's not. Gravity is 32 orders of magnitude weaker than the weak
interaction, which is 10^2 times weaker than than the electromagnetic
interaction which is 10^4 times weaker than the strong interaction.
How much of a geberalization is 10^32 times weaker than the next
weakest force?
The generalisation is when you talk about gravity being extremely
weak without placing that statement in an appropriate context.
Given a single pair of charged particles, the electromagnetic force
between them *is* orders of magnitude greater than the gravitational
force. The same is not true in general for large assemblages of
matter.

Once an electron and a proton have combined to produce a
hydrogen atom, that atom will be bound to the earth by gravity.
In a vacuum, it will (presumably) fall in exact accordance with
Newton's laws. The earth contains many trillions of positively
charged particles, and many trillions of negatively charged
particles, but the net EM effect of all these many trillions of
particles is negligible compared with the effect of gravity.
Post by Bilge
[...]
Post by MTGradwell
The huge EM forces that you believe in are
a theoretical construct, used in one particular model
to explain how the balance is arrived at.
I really have no idea what you are babbling on about.
I had a suspicion that you might not. Never mind, once
more unto the breach ... Do you think that the charged
particles in your body are drawn downwards by a force
which is 10^34 times stronger than the force of gravity
or thereabouts, and at the same time impelled upwards
by another force of the same magnitude, so that the
net effect of these forces is zero? You can believe in
these stupendous forces if you like, but you cannot
demonstrate their existence. Your belief is an act of
faith. I'm not saying it isn't true, this might be exactly
how EM forces operate, but you have no evidence to
that effect. The forces that we can actually detect and
measure are in general negligible compared to the
force of gravity, except at an atomic/molecular level.
Post by Bilge
[...]
Post by MTGradwell
Light travelling downwards in a gravitational field gains energy.
Light travelling upwards in a gravitational field loses energy.
A ball bearing travelling downwards in a gravitational field gains energy.
A ball bearing travelling upwards in a gravitational field loses energy.
Spot the similarity.
The gain/loss of energy is a Newtonian prediction, not an SR prediction.
Don't be an imbecile. Newtonian mechanics cannot describe light.
Newton wrote a book called "optics" to describe light. In general,
optical phenomena are different enough from gravitational phenomena
to require a different treatment. However, Newton considered the
laws of gravity to be universal, i.e. to apply to everything. In Optics
he wrote "Query 1: do not bodies act upon light at a distance, and
by their action bend its rays; and is not this action (other things
being equal) strongest at the least distance?"
Post by Bilge
[...]
Post by MTGradwell
Post by Bilge
The exact reasons you gave for the lorentz transforms not being
correct apply to euclidean rotations. Either the reasons you gave
for the lorentz transforms being wrong were complete bullshit or
they apply to euclidean rotations.
You'll have to refresh my memory.
Sorry. I apologize. I had you confused with marcel luttgens.
Apology accepted.

..
Post by Bilge
Post by MTGradwell
The role in nature of the Mandelbrot set is well known. It is to
be printed out as posters and hung up in student bedsits.
Then perhaps you would like to explain it to the world. Try reading
"The Fractal Geometry of Nature", by mandelbrot, and see if you think it's
so obvious.
I haven't read the book, but I have read a lot about fractals. I find
the notion of a complex pattern being built using the simplest of
rules fascinating. I have written various programs which generate
infinite landscapes and other infinite structures. I wrote one game
(it's called Dragonglide, and it's free. Just google search if you're
interested) mainly to show off some of my infinite landscapes.
Post by Bilge
... I have no real opinion one
way or the other on fractals, but I also realize that self-similarity
is recurring theme in nature.
Indeed it is. I didn't dismiss fractals out of hand. What I did
dismiss was the notion that one particular fractal (the Mandelbrot
set) might be an accurate model of our universe simply because
the mathematics of it is internally self-consistent.

There are reasons for self-similarity being a recurring theme
in nature. One is that exactly the same rules apply at widely
disparate scales. The inverse-square law of Newtonian gravity,
for instance, applies (at least approximately) at the scale of
atoms and the scale of superclusters, and at every scale in
between (and EM forces may be more significant at an atomic
level, but they're still inverse-square). So the existence of
statistical self-similarity at various scales could have been
inferred from Newton's laws.
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 05:41:35 UTC
Permalink
When high-energy cosmic rays hit the top of the earth's atmosphere,
they generate showers of short-lived particles, some of which we can
detect at the Earth's surface.
Muons thrown off by these events can register on ground-level
detectors.

Muons are very short-lived, and Special Relativity's modifications to
Newton's equations mean that the muon velocities are always redefined
to less than the nominal speed of light. Travelling at less than
cBACKGROUND, the muons would then not be considered to have enough
time to reach the ground before decaying, but for SR's matching
redefinitions of the moving particle's ageing rate, which exactly
compensate.

Expert physicists (like C.M. Will) have a habit of saying that
successful groundbased muon detection "proves" SR, since if it wasn't
for SR's time-dilation effect, the muons would not be able to reach
the surface. This is (at best) rather confused reasoning, since (for a
given momentum), a muon's penetration depth under SR is /precisely/
the same as it would be under Newtonian mechanics. The Lorentz
reduction in velocity and the Lorentz slowdown in ageing rate conspire
to make the muon's experience under SR indistinguishable from how it
would have seemed under Newtonian mechanics.

So the "muon proof" of SR seems to be another case of junk science ...
we can certainly choose to go with SR's explanation (deviation from NM
relationships producing subluminality to reduce penetration, coupled
with time dilation to increase it again), or we can choose to stick
with a Newtonian calculation and say that the muon reaches the ground
because it is travelling faster than the usual speed of light. But SR
isn't actually any more accurate than Newtonian mechanics in this
case. Either works. Take your pick.


But showing that some SR experts are misrepresenting experimental data
isn't the same as showing that the theory itself is wrong. We need to
go further. Given that SR will assign a subluminal velocity to _any_
energy or momentum value, what else would we need to find in order to
be able to claim that particles were really travelling faster than our
normal speed of light?

Well, firstly there's Cherenkov radiation. People are supposed to have
seen CR associated with muon showers, but that only means that the
particles are travelling at more than the speed of light in air, it
doesn't automatically mean that they are also travelling at more than
the usual speed of light in a vacuum. To demonstrate that, you'd need
to be able to measure the cone angle accurately (and have a reasonably
theory-neutral way of assessing what that angle meant), and since muon
showers are not controlled experiments, that might not be practical,
dunno.

Secondly, there's a difference in the predicted spread of arrival
times for particles with very high energies.
So, in the 1970's some people started analysing detector outputs to
look for "precursor spikes" - detection "blips" that preceded the main
particle shower "blip" by so much that if both particles had been
generated by the same event in the earth's atmosphere, the fast blip
would have to belong to a particle moving at more than the normal
speed of light.
In Nature [248], March 1, 1974 pp28-30, Clay and Crouch reported that
they had a significant statistical correlation between "early" and
"later" blips that seemed to demonstrate tachyonic behaviour.
The result was disputed (of course), suggestions were made that (e.g.)
perhaps pairs of particles from an earlier production event in deep
space were arriving at the Earth in quick succession. Assessing the
different explanations was difficult -- if one believed that SR could
be wrong, then the result was desperately important and needed to be
investigated, but if one believed that SR could /not/ be wrong, then
any alternative explanation, no matter how odd, would be considered to
be more reasonable than the idea of superfast particles.

So I'm not sure what the current status of these experiments is.
Mainstream guys will probably tell you that the "superfast" results
are now considered to be discredited, but remember, these are usually
the same experts who misrepresented the Newtonian calculations for
muon penetration depth for years to make SR look better, so perhaps
their assurances on these matters are not completely trustworthy.


VERDICT:
Who knows. Flip a coin.
But mark in 1974 (again) as a possible date for SR's experimental
disproof.


=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: "It WASN'T lies!
: It was just ... bullshit."
: -- Jake, "The Blues Brothers"
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 05:58:45 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
When high-energy cosmic rays hit the top of the earth's atmosphere,
they generate showers of short-lived particles, some of which we can
detect at the Earth's surface.
Muons thrown off by these events can register on ground-level
detectors.
Muons are very short-lived, and Special Relativity's modifications to
Newton's equations mean that the muon velocities are always redefined
to less than the nominal speed of light. Travelling at less than
The velocities are *measured*, since the particle is both heavy and
charged. The numbers of particles at different altitudes, and the distance
the travel in a known time (time of flight) agree with a velocity of less
than c, and a particle with a halflife.

...
Post by Eric Baird
Well, firstly there's Cherenkov radiation. People are supposed to have
seen CR associated with muon showers, but that only means that the
particles are travelling at more than the speed of light in air, it
doesn't automatically mean that they are also travelling at more than
the usual speed of light in a vacuum. To demonstrate that, you'd need
to be able to measure the cone angle accurately (and have a reasonably
theory-neutral way of assessing what that angle meant), and since muon
showers are not controlled experiments, that might not be practical,
dunno.
Muons are created as long as the Sun shines. Therefore detection of
Cerenkov radiation should be a non-issue.
Post by Eric Baird
Secondly, there's a difference in the predicted spread of arrival
times for particles with very high energies.
So, in the 1970's some people started analysing detector outputs to
look for "precursor spikes" - detection "blips" that preceded the main
particle shower "blip" by so much that if both particles had been
generated by the same event in the earth's atmosphere, the fast blip
would have to belong to a particle moving at more than the normal
speed of light.
In Nature [248], March 1, 1974 pp28-30, Clay and Crouch reported that
they had a significant statistical correlation between "early" and
"later" blips that seemed to demonstrate tachyonic behaviour.
The result was disputed (of course), suggestions were made that (e.g.)
perhaps pairs of particles from an earlier production event in deep
space were arriving at the Earth in quick succession. Assessing the
different explanations was difficult -- if one believed that SR could
be wrong, then the result was desperately important and needed to be
investigated, but if one believed that SR could /not/ be wrong, then
any alternative explanation, no matter how odd, would be considered to
be more reasonable than the idea of superfast particles.
Yeah. Another "one hit wonder" that cannot be replicated.

By the way, you promised only 6. Since the first 5 were dogs though...

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 19:58:00 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by Eric Baird
When high-energy cosmic rays hit the top of the earth's atmosphere,
they generate showers of short-lived particles, some of which we can
detect at the Earth's surface.
Muons thrown off by these events can register on ground-level
detectors.
Muons are very short-lived, and Special Relativity's modifications to
Newton's equations mean that the muon velocities are always redefined
to less than the nominal speed of light. Travelling at less than
The velocities are *measured*, since the particle is both heavy and
charged.
The velocity is not directly measured, its interpreted and calculated
from the particle's other properties according to SR's rule for how
those properties relate.
If you apply SR, you obtain one interpreted measurement of the
particle's real velocity. if you apply Newtonian mechanics, you get
another velocity value.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
The numbers of particles at different altitudes, and the distance
the travel in a known time (time of flight) agree with a velocity of less
than c, and a particle with a halflife.
Well, yes, if you discard the other measurments taken by people that
claimed to show that numbers of particles at different altitudes, and
the distance the travel in a known time (time of flight) do NOT agree
with a velocity of less than c ...
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
...
Post by Eric Baird
Well, firstly there's Cherenkov radiation. People are supposed to have
seen CR associated with muon showers, but that only means that the
particles are travelling at more than the speed of light in air, it
doesn't automatically mean that they are also travelling at more than
the usual speed of light in a vacuum. To demonstrate that, you'd need
to be able to measure the cone angle accurately (and have a reasonably
theory-neutral way of assessing what that angle meant), and since muon
showers are not controlled experiments, that might not be practical,
dunno.
Muons are created as long as the Sun shines. Therefore detection of
Cerenkov radiation should be a non-issue.
Well, it's probably anon-issue if we can show, in a reasonable
theory-independent way, that the cone angle of the Cherenkov radiation
isn't consistent with travel at more than the usual speed of light in
a vacuum.

If this information supporting the SR interpretation isn't available,
I'm, prepared to accept the idea that it might be because it's
difficult to measure the cone angle over a huge area when you don't
know in advance where the centre is going to be.
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
Post by Eric Baird
Secondly, there's a difference in the predicted spread of arrival
times for particles with very high energies.
So, in the 1970's some people started analysing detector outputs to
look for "precursor spikes" - detection "blips" that preceded the main
particle shower "blip" by so much that if both particles had been
generated by the same event in the earth's atmosphere, the fast blip
would have to belong to a particle moving at more than the normal
speed of light.
In Nature [248], March 1, 1974 pp28-30, Clay and Crouch reported that
they had a significant statistical correlation between "early" and
"later" blips that seemed to demonstrate tachyonic behaviour.
The result was disputed (of course), suggestions were made that (e.g.)
perhaps pairs of particles from an earlier production event in deep
space were arriving at the Earth in quick succession. Assessing the
different explanations was difficult -- if one believed that SR could
be wrong, then the result was desperately important and needed to be
investigated, but if one believed that SR could /not/ be wrong, then
any alternative explanation, no matter how odd, would be considered to
be more reasonable than the idea of superfast particles.
Yeah. Another "one hit wonder" that cannot be replicated.
Well, you might be right ... but after I looked into those claims from
the mainstream about muons not being able to reach the detectors
unless SR was right ... and found that the simplest application of
newtonian mechanics showed that the claim was garbage ... I no longer
know who to trust on the subject.

I mean, it might well be that the people who came up with the non-SR
claim were incompetent, or mistaken, or deliberately exagerrating ...
but since I know for a fact that the mainstream experts were
DEFINITELY incompetent, or mistaken, or deliberately exagerrating,
it's difficult for an outsider to judge what the hell is going on in
this subject.

You can say, well its very unlikely that a non-SR result wouldn't be
picked up on and validated if it was true ... but on the other hand, I
would have thought it was also "very unlikely" that mainstream
theorists and writers would have been able to get away with such a
blatant misrepresentation of the significance of the muon experiment
without being challenged by their colleagues ... and somehow they
managed that.
So, who knows ... :(
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
By the way, you promised only 6. Since the first 5 were dogs though...
Was originally going to be five. But once I started I kinda kept
typing.

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 05:56:26 UTC
Permalink
There's an interesting effect called Cherenkov Radiation
(aka "Cerenkov", it's a Russian name, and Western spellings vary
wildly).

CR is produced when a particle travels through a medium at more than
the speed of light in that medium. It's sometimes explained as being
analogous to the "Mach cone" or "sonic boom" effect that you get with
supersonic aircraft. The blue glow that you see in the boronated water
in tanks around power rods in nuclear power stations is supposed to be
caused by fast particles travelling faster than the speed at which
light normally moves through the water.

Does the association of atmospheric muon showers with CR disprove
special relativity's interpretation that the muons are going at less
than normal lightspeed?
Not quite, because the speed of light is lower in air than vacuum, so
we'd also expect to see CR if the particles were moving faster than
cAIR, but still slower than cVACUUM (which would be the case with
extremely high-energy particles under SR). To verify that the speed is
even greater than the normal speed of light in a vacuum, you'd
probably need to be able to check the angle of the resulting cone,
which might not be practical.



But does the very existence of Cherenkov radiation undermine special
relativity?

Perhaps.
If the speed of light is /uniformly/ lower in the medium, then the
usual rules regarding infinite energy requirements for travelling at
lightspeed would seem to apply. It wouldn't matter that the lightspeed
in question was "anomalously" slow, the energetics would still become
infinite for an object emitting while riding its own EM wavefront, the
particle would "brake" when it entered a medium, and although you'd
then have forward-emitted "braking radiation", the "proper" Cerenkov
radiation effect wouldn't arise.
Also, an atom travelling through a medium at more than cMEDIUM would
have to maintain a local internal speed of light within its structure
that would be different to the speed outside, otherwise that internal
structure could not be maintained. If the rear of the atom could not
send signals to the front of the atom, then the internal equilibria
would break down and you wouldn't have an atom any more.
So … given that fast particles do seem to be able to exceed cMEDIUM,
we have to conclude that (a) if cMEDIUM is smooth, then the moving
particle drags lightspeed, and (b) if cMEDIUM is =NOT= smooth, it's
the background particles that are dragging lightspeed. Either way, we
seem to be saying that particles moving at speed past other particles
will drag lightspeeds, in their immediate vicinity, at least.

So, if particles drag lightspeeds, a superfast muon in a non-SR theory
of relativity /might/ push lightspeed ahead of itself and never exceed
its own local speed of light no matter how fast it went. Special
relativity's redefinitions of the velocities of all
high-kinetic-energy objects to speeds less than nominal lightspeed
might have been unnecessary.


VERDICT:
Cherenkov radiation seems to suggest that (in some circumstances, at
least) a very fast object can modify local background lightspeed so
that it can travel through a region at more than would otherwise be
the speed of light, without hitting the usual lightspeed barrier
problems. At least, that's what seems to happen in particulate media
with Cherenkov radiation ... so what's to say that a particle can't do
the same thing with conventional background lightspeeds? After all,
the speed of light in one region of vacuum isn't necessarily an
absolute limit ... another region of vacuum elsewhere might have a
lower background gravitational field strength and a correspondingly
higher lightspeed (although local observers would presumably also have
a higher rate of timeflow and still measure the standard local value
of c).
So, really, cVACUUM isn't an absolute limit of nature while there's a
positive gravitational field intensity that can be manipulated -- if a
particle streaking through the region creates positive and negative
distortions behind and before it, then, yes, it could conceivably go
faster than normal cVACUUM without any field parameters actually going
negative. In fact, you could even argue that the conventional
aberration distortions on a fast-moving object, considered as "real"
distortions of the object's geometry, might be taken as evidence for
this sort of apparent Alcubierre-style spacetime-distortion effect as
an everyday consequence of relative motion between masses and take it
as evidence for the possible legality of super-fast motion (although,
this behaviour would not, of course, be compatable with special
relativity).

But to verify the possibility of this sort of behaviour (or disprove
it), we'd probably need to do proper measurements of the speed of
light alongside a relativistic particle stream to see if the "new"
speed really does exceed "normal" lightspeed, and (as mentioned in the
"Fresnel Drag" section) that test result seems to be unfortunately
missing from the standard list of SR tests.

So, pending this sort of test, let's mark up 1958, the year of
Cherenkov's Nobel Prize, as a slightly fuzzy possible date. "To be
Confirmed".

=Erk= (Eric Baird)
: "=I'd= notice the difference," said Arthur.
: "No you wouldn't," said Frankie mouse, "you'd be programmed not to."
: -- Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-24 06:02:13 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
There's an interesting effect called Cherenkov Radiation
(aka "Cerenkov", it's a Russian name, and Western spellings vary
wildly).
...
Post by Eric Baird
Does the association of atmospheric muon showers with CR disprove
special relativity's interpretation that the muons are going at less
than normal lightspeed?
Not quite, because the speed of light is lower in air than vacuum, so
we'd also expect to see CR if the particles were moving faster than
cAIR, but still slower than cVACUUM (which would be the case with
extremely high-energy particles under SR). To verify that the speed is
even greater than the normal speed of light in a vacuum, you'd
probably need to be able to check the angle of the resulting cone,
which might not be practical.
It is practical. And since most particles producing Cerenkov radiation are
charged particles, time-of-flight can be done. As with your muon
objection, another dud.

8 strikes. Are you done?

David A. Smith
Eric Baird
2003-12-24 20:01:35 UTC
Permalink
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
...
Post by Eric Baird
Does the association of atmospheric muon showers with CR disprove
special relativity's interpretation that the muons are going at less
than normal lightspeed?
Not quite, because the speed of light is lower in air than vacuum, so
we'd also expect to see CR if the particles were moving faster than
cAIR, but still slower than cVACUUM (which would be the case with
extremely high-energy particles under SR). To verify that the speed is
even greater than the normal speed of light in a vacuum, you'd
probably need to be able to check the angle of the resulting cone,
which might not be practical.
It is practical.
Well, then ... has anyone actual;ly tried it?
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
And since most particles producing Cerenkov radiation are
charged particles, time-of-flight can be done.
Oh ... interesting, what sort of measurement did you have in mind,
parallel stacked detector plates or something?
mmmm ....
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
As with your muon
objection, another dud.
8 strikes. Are you done?
=Erk= (Eric Baird)
N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
2003-12-25 06:00:21 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
...
Post by Eric Baird
Does the association of atmospheric muon showers with CR disprove
special relativity's interpretation that the muons are going at less
than normal lightspeed?
Not quite, because the speed of light is lower in air than vacuum, so
we'd also expect to see CR if the particles were moving faster than
cAIR, but still slower than cVACUUM (which would be the case with
extremely high-energy particles under SR). To verify that the speed is
even greater than the normal speed of light in a vacuum, you'd
probably need to be able to check the angle of the resulting cone,
which might not be practical.
It is practical.
Well, then ... has anyone actual;ly tried it?
I believe NASA did.
Post by Eric Baird
Post by N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)
And since most particles producing Cerenkov radiation are
charged particles, time-of-flight can be done.
Oh ... interesting, what sort of measurement did you have in mind,
parallel stacked detector plates or something?
mmmm ....
Most likely. Run them at different altitudes to get a decay rate.
Provides a better number for current lifetime anyway. Inferences of speed
might be nice, but would only apply to the bulk data. Outliers would be
eliminated, since muons are generated by neutrino collisions inside the
Earth, and by other natural actions as well.

Merry Christmas, by the way.

David A. Smith
shuba
2003-12-25 19:04:05 UTC
Permalink
Post by Eric Baird
A Christmas Puzzle.
Maybe we should stick to events that actually happened. How
about guessing the date that wordy crank Eric Baird decided that
abusing arXiv was more important than having a shred of integrity?


---Tim Shuba---
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